Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of myocardial infarction is prescribed atorvastatin. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Liver damage
• B. Kidney damage
• C. Muscle pain
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Muscle pain. Atorvastatin can cause muscle pain, which may indicate rhabdomyolysis, a serious adverse effect. Rhabdomyolysis is a condition where muscle breakdown releases a protein (myoglobin) into the bloodstream, potentially leading to kidney damage. Liver damage (choice A) is a less common side effect of atorvastatin compared to muscle pain. Kidney damage (choice B) is not a direct adverse effect of atorvastatin but can occur indirectly if rhabdomyolysis is severe. Increased appetite (choice D) is not a known adverse effect of atorvastatin.

2. A client with diabetes mellitus is prescribed insulin glargine. What information should the practical nurse (PN) provide to the client about this medication?

• A. Administer the insulin at mealtimes.
• B. Do not mix this insulin with other insulins.
• C. Shake the vial well before use.
• D. Store the insulin in the freezer.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin that should not be mixed with other insulins in the same syringe. Mixing it with other insulins can alter its pharmacokinetics and effectiveness. Insulin glargine is usually administered at the same time each day, often at bedtime, to provide a consistent basal level of insulin over 24 hours.

3. A client is prescribed an antibiotic for a urinary tract infection (UTI). What instruction should the practical nurse provide to the client to ensure the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Increase fluid intake.
• C. Complete the full course of the medication.
• D. Avoid dairy products.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The practical nurse should instruct the client to complete the full course of the antibiotic to ensure the infection is fully treated and to prevent the development of antibiotic resistance. Completing the full course of antibiotics helps to eradicate the infection completely and reduces the risk of bacteria developing resistance to the medication. Choices A, B, and D are not directly related to ensuring the effectiveness of the antibiotic. While taking medication with food or increasing fluid intake can be beneficial in general, the crucial instruction in this case is to complete the full course of the antibiotic.

4. A client is prescribed clonidine 0.1 mg/24 hours via a transdermal patch. Which client outcome would indicate that the medication is effective?

• A. No complaints of recent episodes of angina
• B. Change in peripheral edema from +3 to +1
• C. No complaints of new onset of nausea or vomiting
• D. Blood pressure changes from 180/120 to 140/70 mm Hg

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clonidine is an antihypertensive agent that works centrally to reduce blood pressure. A significant decrease in blood pressure, such as changing from 180/120 to 140/70 mm Hg, indicates that the medication is effectively managing hypertension. Monitoring blood pressure levels is crucial in assessing the response to clonidine therapy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the therapeutic effect of clonidine in managing hypertension, which is the primary goal of the medication in this scenario.

5. A client with hypertension is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hypernatremia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide, the nurse should monitor for hypokalemia as a potential side effect. Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, hence monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications related to hypokalemia.

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