Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of myocardial infarction is prescribed atorvastatin. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Liver damage
• B. Kidney damage
• C. Muscle pain
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Muscle pain. Atorvastatin can cause muscle pain, which may indicate rhabdomyolysis, a serious adverse effect. Rhabdomyolysis is a condition where muscle breakdown releases a protein (myoglobin) into the bloodstream, potentially leading to kidney damage. Liver damage (choice A) is a less common side effect of atorvastatin compared to muscle pain. Kidney damage (choice B) is not a direct adverse effect of atorvastatin but can occur indirectly if rhabdomyolysis is severe. Increased appetite (choice D) is not a known adverse effect of atorvastatin.

2. The healthcare professional is preparing client teaching materials on commonly used medications. Which client is most likely to benefit from a client education package about simvastatin?

• A. A 50-year-old male with a history of angina
• B. A 75-year-old male with bone cancer
• C. An 18-year-old pregnant female with diabetes
• D. A 40-year-old female with frequent vaginal infections

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Simvastatin is a medication used to lower cholesterol levels and prevent cardiovascular diseases. It is commonly prescribed for individuals at risk of heart-related conditions. Angina is a symptom of underlying heart disease, and individuals with this condition would benefit most from simvastatin to help manage their cholesterol levels and reduce the risk of cardiovascular events. Therefore, the 50-year-old male with a history of angina is the most suitable candidate for client education regarding simvastatin. Choices B, C, and D are not the most appropriate candidates for simvastatin education because bone cancer, pregnancy with diabetes, and frequent vaginal infections are not conditions typically treated with simvastatin.

3. A client with anxiety is prescribed alprazolam. What instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Take this medication with food.
• B. Avoid activities that require alertness.
• C. Do not stop taking this medication abruptly.
• D. This medication may cause drowsiness.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Do not stop taking this medication abruptly.' Alprazolam should not be stopped suddenly as it can lead to withdrawal symptoms. It is important for clients to taper off the medication gradually under medical supervision to prevent adverse effects. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is irrelevant to alprazolam administration instructions. Choice B, 'Avoid activities that require alertness,' is not the priority teaching point for alprazolam. Choice D, 'This medication may cause drowsiness,' is a common side effect of alprazolam but not the most critical instruction to include in the teaching plan.

4. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed warfarin. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Increased risk of bleeding
• B. Decreased risk of bleeding
• C. Increased risk of infection
• D. Decreased risk of infection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of bleeding. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by prolonging the time it takes for blood to clot. Therefore, a potential adverse effect of warfarin is an increased risk of bleeding. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, nosebleeds, or blood in the urine or stool. Monitoring for these signs is essential to prevent serious complications associated with excessive bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because warfarin does not decrease the risk of bleeding, increase the risk of infection, or decrease the risk of infection. The primary concern with warfarin therapy is the potential for bleeding complications, so close monitoring for signs of bleeding is essential.

5. A male client receives a scopolamine transdermal patch 2 hours before surgery. Four hours after surgery, the client tells the nurse that he is experiencing pain and asks why the patch is not working. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Advise the client that the effects of the medication have worn off
• B. Explain that the medication is not given to relieve pain
• C. Check for the correct placement of the patch on the client
• D. Offer to apply a new transdermal patch to address the pain

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Scopolamine is not a pain medication; it is commonly used to prevent nausea and vomiting, particularly in surgical settings. It works on the central nervous system to help control these symptoms, not to relieve pain. Therefore, it is important for the nurse to explain to the client that the medication is not intended to relieve pain but rather to manage other specific symptoms. Checking the correct placement of the patch is also important to ensure proper administration, but addressing the misconception about the medication's purpose is the priority in this scenario. Offering to apply a new patch would not address the client's pain as scopolamine is not meant for pain relief. Advising the client that the effects have worn off is inaccurate because the medication is not used for pain management.

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