HESI LPN
Community Health HESI Test Bank 2023
1. The healthcare provider would expect which eating disorder to have the greatest fluctuations in potassium?
- A. Binge eating disorder
- B. Anorexia nervosa
- C. Bulimia
- D. Purge syndrome
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bulimia. Bulimia involves cycles of binge eating and purging, where individuals may induce vomiting or use laxatives and diuretics. These purging behaviors can lead to significant fluctuations in potassium levels due to electrolyte imbalances caused by excessive loss of potassium through vomiting and purging. In contrast, Binge eating disorder (A) does not involve purging behaviors, so it is less likely to cause significant potassium fluctuations. Anorexia nervosa (B) is characterized by severe food restriction rather than purging, leading to a different pattern of electrolyte imbalances. Purge syndrome (D) is not a recognized eating disorder and is not associated with specific patterns of potassium fluctuations seen in bulimia.
2. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Decreased anteroposterior diameter
- B. Hyperresonance on percussion
- C. Increased breath sounds
- D. Prolonged expiratory phase
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Prolonged expiratory phase. In COPD, there is airflow obstruction leading to difficulty in exhaling air. This results in a prolonged expiratory phase. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Decreased anteroposterior diameter is associated with conditions like barrel chest in emphysema, not COPD. Hyperresonance on percussion is typical in conditions like emphysema, not necessarily in COPD. Increased breath sounds are not a typical finding in COPD; instead, diminished breath sounds may be present due to air trapping.
3. Epidemiology is directly concerned with which of the following?
- A. factors influencing occurrence and distribution of diseases, defects, disability, or death of groups of individuals
- B. vital health statistics
- C. environmental sanitation
- D. treatment of a communicable disease
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Epidemiology is the study of the distribution and determinants of health-related states or events in specified populations and the application of this study to the control of health problems. It focuses on identifying and understanding the factors that influence the occurrence and distribution of diseases, defects, disability, or death of groups of individuals. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choice B, vital health statistics, is not the primary focus of epidemiology. While vital health statistics may be used in epidemiological studies, it is not the direct concern of epidemiology. Choice C, environmental sanitation, although important for public health, is not the main focus of epidemiology. Epidemiology is more concerned with the factors influencing disease occurrence and distribution, rather than environmental sanitation. Choice D, treatment of a communicable disease, is more related to clinical medicine rather than epidemiology. Epidemiology is more focused on prevention, control, and understanding the patterns and causes of diseases rather than their treatment.
4. The nurse is administering the measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) vaccine to a 12-month-old child during the well-baby visit. Which age range should the nurse advise the parents to plan for their child to receive the MMR booster based on the current recommendations and guidelines by the CDC?
- A. 13-18 years of age
- B. 11-12 years of age
- C. 18-24 months of age
- D. 4-6 years of age
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 4-6 years of age. The CDC recommends administering the MMR booster to children aged 4 to 6 years. This booster dose is essential to ensure continued immunity against measles, mumps, and rubella. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not align with the CDC guidelines for the age range of MMR booster administration.
5. In planning the use of resources for secondary prevention in a community clinic serving migrant families, which activity should be the priority?
- A. Skin testing for tuberculosis.
- B. Glucose monitoring for diabetes.
- C. Blood work for cardiovascular disease.
- D. Height and weight for altered nutrition.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Skin testing for tuberculosis. In a community clinic serving migrant families, tuberculosis is a significant health concern due to close living conditions and potential exposure during migration. Skin testing for tuberculosis is crucial for secondary prevention as it helps in early detection and prevention of the spread of the disease within the community. Choices B, C, and D are important health screenings but may not be the priority in this specific population where tuberculosis poses a higher risk.
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