Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider would expect which eating disorder to have the greatest fluctuations in potassium?

• A. Binge eating disorder
• B. Anorexia nervosa
• C. Bulimia
• D. Purge syndrome

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bulimia. Bulimia involves cycles of binge eating and purging, where individuals may induce vomiting or use laxatives and diuretics. These purging behaviors can lead to significant fluctuations in potassium levels due to electrolyte imbalances caused by excessive loss of potassium through vomiting and purging. In contrast, Binge eating disorder (A) does not involve purging behaviors, so it is less likely to cause significant potassium fluctuations. Anorexia nervosa (B) is characterized by severe food restriction rather than purging, leading to a different pattern of electrolyte imbalances. Purge syndrome (D) is not a recognized eating disorder and is not associated with specific patterns of potassium fluctuations seen in bulimia.

2. A community hospital is an example of which level of health care?

• A. Secondary level health care
• B. Primary health care
• C. Tertiary level care
• D. Intermediate level care

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A community hospital is categorized under secondary level health care. Secondary level health care facilities, like community hospitals, provide specialized outpatient care, diagnostic services, and treatment that are more complex than what is offered in primary health care settings. Choice B, primary health care, refers to basic and routine health care services typically provided by family doctors or general practitioners, which is not the level of care provided by community hospitals. Tertiary level care (choice C) involves highly specialized and complex medical services such as neurosurgery or organ transplants, which are beyond the scope of services provided by community hospitals. Intermediate level care (choice D) is not a recognized category in the hierarchy of health care levels.

3. The nurse is assessing a client with portal hypertension. Which of the following findings would the nurse expect?

• A. Expiratory wheezes
• B. Blurred vision
• C. Ascites
• D. Dilated pupils

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ascites is a common finding in clients with portal hypertension. Portal hypertension results in increased pressure in the portal vein, leading to the development of ascites, which is the accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity. Expiratory wheezes (Choice A) are associated with respiratory conditions. Blurred vision (Choice B) is more commonly linked to eye disorders or neurological issues. Dilated pupils (Choice D) can be related to neurological conditions or drug effects, but not specifically to portal hypertension.

4. A client comes into the community health center upset and crying stating, “I will die of cancer now that I have this disease.” And then the client hands the nurse a paper with one word written on it: 'Pheochromocytoma.' Which response should the nurse state initially?

• A. 'Pheochromocytomas usually aren't cancerous (malignant). But they may be associated with cancerous tumors in other endocrine glands such as the thyroid (medullary carcinoma of the thyroid).'
• B. 'This problem is diagnosed by blood and urine tests that reveal elevated levels of adrenaline and noradrenaline.'
• C. 'Computerized tomography (CT) or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) are used to detect an adrenal tumor.'
• D. 'You probably have had episodes of sweating, heart pounding, and headaches.'

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct initial response for the nurse to provide in this situation is to offer reassurance. Stating that 'Pheochromocytomas usually aren't cancerous (malignant)' helps to alleviate the client's anxiety and fear of having cancer. This response also establishes a foundation for further discussion about the condition, allowing the nurse to address the client's concerns and provide accurate information. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses solely on the diagnostic tests for pheochromocytoma but does not address the client's emotional distress. Choice C is incorrect as it discusses imaging modalities without directly addressing the client's concerns. Choice D is also incorrect as it assumes symptoms without first addressing the client's emotional state and fear of cancer.

5. Which topic should be included in planning a secondary prevention project for the local retirement community?

• A. Safety measures in the home.
• B. Adult immunization program.
• C. Rehabilitation after surgery.
• D. Vision and hearing screening.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In planning a secondary prevention project for the local retirement community, vision and hearing screening should be included. This is crucial as sensory impairments are common among older adults and early detection through screening can help in preventing further complications. Safety measures in the home, adult immunization programs, and rehabilitation after surgery are important but fall more under primary or tertiary prevention strategies rather than secondary prevention, which focuses on early detection and intervention to prevent the progression of health conditions.

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