HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam
1. The nurse provides discharge teaching to a client who was recently diagnosed with diabetes mellitus (DM). After receiving the instructions, the client expresses understanding about when, how, and why to take his prescribed medications at home. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Review the purpose of medications prescribed for the client to take home with him
- B. Provide the client with a printed list of medications and a schedule for administration
- C. Send a list of medications taken while hospitalized to the client’s healthcare provider
- D. Offer to consult with the pharmacist about resources for reduced-price medications
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Providing the client with a printed list of medications and a schedule for administration is crucial to ensure adherence and understanding of the medication regimen at home. This intervention helps the client follow the prescribed treatment plan accurately. Choice A is not as essential since the client already understands when, how, and why to take the medications. Choice C is not a priority at this point as the client needs information for home medication management. Choice D, while helpful, is not the most important intervention compared to providing a clear list and schedule for medication administration.
2. The nurse is planning to assess a client's oxygen saturation to determine if additional oxygen is needed via nasal cannula. The client has bilateral below-the-knee amputations and weak, thread pedal pulses. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Document that an accurate oxygen saturation reading cannot be obtained
- B. Elevate the client's hands for five minutes prior to obtaining a reading from the finger
- C. Increase the oxygen based on the client's breathing patterns and lung sounds
- D. Place the oximeter clip on the earlobe to obtain the oxygen saturation reading
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Placing the oximeter clip on the earlobe is appropriate for clients with poor peripheral circulation, such as those with weak and thread pedal pulses due to bilateral below-the-knee amputations. This placement can provide a more accurate reading of oxygen saturation in such clients. Choice A is incorrect because alternative methods, such as earlobe placement, can be used to obtain accurate readings. Choice B is unnecessary and not related to obtaining an accurate oxygen saturation reading. Choice C is incorrect because increasing oxygen without assessing the oxygen saturation level first can be detrimental and is not based on evidence-based practice.
3. After removing an IV that became infiltrated in the client’s left forearm, which site should the nurse select as a possible site to insert another IV catheter?
- A. Right hand
- B. Right forearm
- C. Left hand
- D. Right subclavian
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Right hand. When an IV becomes infiltrated in the client's left forearm, it is essential to avoid the same side due to the risk of complications. Therefore, the right hand is a suitable alternative site for IV insertion. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choosing the right forearm (B) would still be on the same side, which increases the risk of complications. The left hand (C) is not a preferred option immediately after an infiltration in the left forearm. The right subclavian (D) is an invasive site typically reserved for central line placement and not a first-line choice for IV insertion.
4. Following morning care, a client with C-5 spinal cord injury who is sitting in a wheelchair becomes flushed and complains of a headache. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Check for any kinks or obstructions in the client’s Foley tubing
- B. Assess the client’s blood pressure every 15 minutes
- C. Administer a prescribed PRN dose of hydralazine (Apresoline)
- D. Educate the client on recognizing symptoms of dysreflexia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client with a C-5 spinal cord injury experiencing flushing and a headache, the priority intervention is to assess the client's blood pressure every 15 minutes. These symptoms could indicate autonomic dysreflexia, a potentially life-threatening condition. Assessing the blood pressure is crucial to identify and address this emergency situation promptly. Checking for kinks or obstructions in the Foley tubing (Choice A) is important but not the priority in this scenario. Administering hydralazine (Choice C) without knowing the blood pressure could be harmful as it may lead to a sudden drop in blood pressure. Educating the client on recognizing symptoms of dysreflexia (Choice D) is important for long-term management but is not the immediate action needed in this acute situation.
5. When a UAP reports to the charge nurse that a client has a weak pulse with a rate of 44 beats per minute, what action should the charge nurse implement?
- A. Instruct the UAP to count the client's apical pulse rate for sixty seconds.
- B. Determine if the UAP also measured the client's capillary refill time.
- C. Assign a practical nurse (LPN) to determine if an apical radial pulse deficit is present.
- D. Notify the health care provider of the abnormal pulse rate and pulse volume.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the charge nurse to implement is to notify the health care provider of the abnormal pulse rate and pulse volume. A weak pulse with bradycardia (pulse rate of 44 beats per minute) requires immediate follow-up to investigate potential underlying issues. In this situation, it is crucial to involve the healthcare provider for further assessment and intervention. Instructing the UAP to count the client's apical pulse rate for sixty seconds (Choice A) may delay necessary actions. Determining capillary refill time (Choice B) is not directly related to addressing a weak pulse, and assigning an LPN to assess an apical radial pulse deficit (Choice C) is not as urgent as involving the healthcare provider.
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