the client with which type of wound is most likely to need immediate intervention by the nurse
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

CAT Exam Practice

1. Which type of wound would most likely require immediate intervention by the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A laceration would most likely require immediate intervention by the healthcare provider due to its deeper tissue damage, significant bleeding, and higher risk of infection compared to abrasions, contusions, and ulcerations. Lacerations often need prompt attention to control bleeding, clean the wound, and reduce the risk of infection. Abrasions are superficial wounds that usually do not require urgent attention as they tend to heal well on their own with basic wound care. Contusions are bruises that typically resolve on their own without immediate intervention. Ulcerations are open sores that may require intervention but not necessarily immediate action unless complicated by infection or other issues.

2. A newly hired unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) is assigned to a home healthcare team along with two experienced UAPs. Which intervention should the home health nurse implement to ensure adequate care for all clients?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Evaluating the newly hired UAP’s competency by observing them deliver care is the most effective intervention to ensure they can provide safe and effective care. This approach directly assesses the UAP's actual performance and allows for immediate feedback. Option A, asking the most experienced UAP to partner with the newly hired one, may not guarantee that the new UAP is competent. Option C, reviewing the UAP’s skills checklist and experience with the hiring person, does not provide a direct assessment of the UAP's current abilities. Option D, assigning the new UAP to less complex cases, does not address the need to evaluate their competency directly.

3. To evaluate the medication’s effectiveness in a client with a respiratory tract infection, which laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: White blood cell (WBC) count. Monitoring the WBC count helps assess the overall response to infection and the effectiveness of the antibiotic. Sputum culture and sensitivity (choice B) are also important to confirm if the antibiotic is targeting the specific pathogen. Choices C and D, droplet precautions and protective environment, are not laboratory values but rather infection control measures that do not directly evaluate the medication's effectiveness in treating the infection.

4. A client is admitted to a medical unit with the diagnosis of gastritis and chronic heavy alcohol abuse. What should the nurse administer to prevent the development of Wernicke's syndrome?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Thiamine supplementation is critical in preventing Wernicke's syndrome, especially in clients with chronic alcohol use. Wernicke's syndrome is a neurological disorder caused by thiamine deficiency. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and not for preventing Wernicke's syndrome. Famotidine is an H2 blocker used to reduce stomach acid production but does not prevent Wernicke's syndrome. Atenolol is a beta-blocker used for hypertension and angina, not for preventing Wernicke's syndrome.

5. A male client with angina pectoris is being discharged from the hospital. What instructions should the nurse plan to include in the discharge teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to keep nitroglycerin in a light-colored container and readily available. Nitroglycerin should be protected from light to maintain its effectiveness. Option A is incorrect because physical exercise immediately before eating can trigger angina. Option B is incorrect as cold weather can exacerbate angina symptoms. Option D is incorrect as isometric exercises can increase the workload on the heart, which is not recommended for individuals with angina.

Similar Questions

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