HESI LPN TEST BANK

HESI CAT Exam 2022

A postoperative client returns to the nursing unit following a ureterolithotomy via a flank incision. Which potential nursing problem has the highest priority when planning nursing care for this client?

    A. Ineffective airway clearance

    B. Altered nutrition less than body requirements

    C. Fluid volume excess

    D. Activity intolerance

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the highest priority nursing problem for the postoperative client following a ureterolithotomy via a flank incision is ineffective airway clearance. After surgery, there is a risk of airway obstruction due to factors like anesthesia, positioning during surgery, or the presence of secretions. Maintaining a clear airway is crucial to prevent respiratory complications, such as atelectasis or pneumonia. Altered nutrition, fluid volume excess, and activity intolerance are important considerations but are secondary to the immediate threat of compromised airway clearance in the postoperative period.

A client with myasthenia gravis (MG) is receiving immunosuppressive therapy. Review of recent laboratory test results shows that the client’s serum magnesium level has decreased below the normal range. In addition to contacting the healthcare provider, what nursing action is most important?

  • A. Check the visual difficulties
  • B. Note the most recent hemoglobin level
  • C. Assess for hand and joint pain
  • D. Observe rhythm on telemetry monitor

Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to observe the rhythm on the telemetry monitor. Decreased magnesium levels can lead to cardiac issues, such as arrhythmias. Monitoring the heart rhythm is crucial in this situation. Checking visual difficulties (choice A) is not directly related to the potential cardiac effects of low magnesium levels. Noting the hemoglobin level (choice B) and assessing for hand and joint pain (choice C) are not the priority when dealing with low magnesium levels and possible cardiac complications.

While caring for a client with bilateral chest tubes, the bubbling in the water-seal chamber of the right chest tube stops. What action is most important for the nurse to take?

  • A. Check the chest tube connections to the water-seal container
  • B. Replace the water-seal collection container
  • C. Increase the amount of wall suction connected to the right chest tube
  • D. Milk the tubing connected to the right chest tube

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most important action for the nurse to take when the bubbling in the water-seal chamber of the right chest tube stops is to check the chest tube connections to the water-seal container. This is crucial to ensure there are no disconnections or leaks affecting the bubbling. Replacing the water-seal collection container (choice B) is not necessary unless there is a malfunction; increasing suction (choice C) without assessing the connections can be harmful, and 'milking' the tubing (choice D) is an inappropriate action that can cause damage to the system.

The nurse is caring for a newborn who arrives in the nursery following a precipitous birth on the way to the hospital. A drug screen of the mother reveals the presence of cocaine metabolites. The infant has a heart rate of 175 beats/minute, cries continuously, is irritable, and is hyperreactive to stimuli. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this infant’s plan of care?

  • A. Initiate infant sepsis protocol
  • B. Implement seizure precautions
  • C. Refer to protective child services
  • D. Formula feed every 3 hours

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The infant's symptoms, such as a high heart rate, continuous crying, irritability, and hyperreactivity, suggest possible withdrawal effects due to maternal cocaine use. These symptoms can lead to seizures. Therefore, the priority intervention is to implement seizure precautions to ensure the infant's safety. Initiating the infant sepsis protocol is not indicated based on the symptoms presented. Referring to protective child services is important but not the immediate priority. Formula feeding every 3 hours is a routine care measure but does not address the urgent need to prevent potential seizures.

The nurse is teaching a male adolescent recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus (DM) about self-injecting insulin. Which approach is best for the nurse to use to evaluate the effectiveness of the teaching?

  • A. Observe him demonstrating the self-injection technique to another diabetic adolescent.
  • B. Ask the adolescent to describe his comfort level with injecting himself with insulin.
  • C. Review his glycosylated hemoglobin level 3 months after the teaching session.
  • D. Have the adolescent list the steps for safe insulin administration.

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Reviewing the glycosylated hemoglobin level after a few months is the best approach to evaluate the effectiveness of teaching self-injection. This measurement provides an objective indicator of the adolescent's glucose control over time, reflecting the impact of insulin self-administration education. Choices A, B, and D do not directly assess the long-term impact of the teaching on the adolescent's diabetes management.

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