Nursing Elites

1. A postoperative client returns to the nursing unit following a ureterolithotomy via a flank incision. Which potential nursing problem has the highest priority when planning nursing care for this client?

• A. Ineffective airway clearance
• B. Altered nutrition less than body requirements
• C. Fluid volume excess
• D. Activity intolerance

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the highest priority nursing problem for the postoperative client following a ureterolithotomy via a flank incision is ineffective airway clearance. After surgery, there is a risk of airway obstruction due to factors like anesthesia, positioning during surgery, or the presence of secretions. Maintaining a clear airway is crucial to prevent respiratory complications, such as atelectasis or pneumonia. Altered nutrition, fluid volume excess, and activity intolerance are important considerations but are secondary to the immediate threat of compromised airway clearance in the postoperative period.

2. A 2-year-old boy with short bowel syndrome has progressed to receiving enteral feedings only. Today his stools are occurring more frequently and have a more liquid consistency. His temperature is 102.2 °F, and he has vomited twice in the past four hours. Which assessment finding indicates that the child is becoming dehydrated?

• A. Occult blood in the stool
• B. Abdominal distention
• C. Elevated urine specific gravity
• D. Hyperactive bowel sounds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevated urine specific gravity indicates concentrated urine, a sign of dehydration. In this scenario, the child is showing signs of dehydration with increased stool frequency, liquid consistency, fever, and vomiting. Occult blood in the stool may indicate gastrointestinal bleeding but is not a specific sign of dehydration. Abdominal distention can be seen in various conditions and is not a specific indicator of dehydration. Hyperactive bowel sounds can be present in various gastrointestinal conditions but are not directly related to dehydration.

3. A male client, admitted to the mental health unit for a somatoform disorder, becomes angry because he cannot have his pain medication. He demands that the nurse call the healthcare provider and threatens to leave the hospital. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Place the client in seclusion per unit guidelines
• B. Administer a PRN prescription for lorazepam (Ativan)
• C. Call security to help ensure staff and client safety
• D. Ask what other methods he uses to deal with pain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should prioritize ensuring safety. When a client becomes aggressive and threatens to leave, calling security is crucial to help maintain a safe environment for both staff and the client. Placing the client in seclusion (choice A) is not the appropriate initial action as it may escalate the situation further. Administering lorazepam (choice B) should not be the first response to behavioral issues. Asking about other pain management methods (choice D) is not the immediate priority when safety is at risk.

4. A male client admitted three days ago with respiratory failure is intubated and receiving 40% oxygen per facemask. Currently, his temperature is 99°F, capillary refill is less than 4 seconds, and respiratory effort is within normal limits. What outcome should the nurse evaluate to measure for successful extubation?

• A. Exhibits adequate tissue perfusion
• B. Remains free of injury
• C. Remains free of infection
• D. Maintains effective breathing pattern

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Successful extubation is primarily measured by the client's ability to maintain an effective breathing pattern. This indicates that the client can adequately oxygenate and ventilate without the need for artificial airway support. Choices A, B, and C are important aspects of patient care but are not the primary outcomes to evaluate for successful extubation. Adequate tissue perfusion, freedom from injury, and prevention of infection are ongoing goals during the client's hospitalization but are not the immediate focus when considering extubation.

5. The healthcare provider changes a client’s medication prescription from IV to PO administration and doubles the dose. The nurse notes in the drug guide that the prescribed medication, when given orally, has a high first-pass effect and reduces bioavailability. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Continue administering the medication via the IV route.
• B. Give half the prescribed oral dose until consulting the provider.
• C. Administer the medication orally as prescribed.
• D. Consult with the pharmacist regarding the prescription change.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to consult with the pharmacist regarding the change in prescription. With the high first-pass effect of the medication when given orally, it reduces its bioavailability, meaning a dosage adjustment may be necessary to achieve the desired therapeutic effect. Continuing to administer the medication via the IV route (choice A) is not appropriate as the prescription has been changed to oral administration. Giving half the prescribed oral dose until consulting the provider (choice B) is not recommended without proper guidance, which should come from consulting with the pharmacist. Simply administering the medication orally as prescribed (choice C) without addressing the potential issue of reduced bioavailability may lead to suboptimal treatment outcomes.

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