Nursing Elites

1. A postoperative client returns to the nursing unit following a ureterolithotomy via a flank incision. Which potential nursing problem has the highest priority when planning nursing care for this client?

• A. Ineffective airway clearance
• B. Altered nutrition less than body requirements
• C. Fluid volume excess
• D. Activity intolerance

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the highest priority nursing problem for the postoperative client following a ureterolithotomy via a flank incision is ineffective airway clearance. After surgery, there is a risk of airway obstruction due to factors like anesthesia, positioning during surgery, or the presence of secretions. Maintaining a clear airway is crucial to prevent respiratory complications, such as atelectasis or pneumonia. Altered nutrition, fluid volume excess, and activity intolerance are important considerations but are secondary to the immediate threat of compromised airway clearance in the postoperative period.

2. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is admitted for frequent hyperglycemic episodes and a glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) of 10%. Insulin glargine 10 units subcutaneously once a day at bedtime and a sliding scale with insulin aspart q6h are prescribed. What action should the nurse include in this client’s plan of care?

• A. Perform fingerstick glucose assessment q6h with meals
• B. Mix bedtime dose of insulin glargine with insulin aspart sliding scale dose
• C. Review proper foot care and prevention of injury with the client
• D. Avoid contaminating the insulin aspart for IV use

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Performing fingerstick glucose assessments q6h with meals is essential in monitoring the client's blood glucose levels closely, especially when managing hyperglycemic episodes and adjusting insulin doses with a sliding scale. This action helps in determining the effectiveness of the prescribed insulin regimen. Reviewing proper foot care and preventing injury is important for long-term diabetic management but not the immediate priority in this scenario. Mixing insulin glargine with insulin aspart is not recommended, as they are different types of insulin with distinct mechanisms of action. Ensuring the availability of insulin aspart for IV use is not relevant to the client's current care plan.

3. The nurse is planning to assess a client's oxygen saturation to determine if additional oxygen is needed via nasal cannula. The client has bilateral below-the-knee amputations and weak, thread pedal pulses. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Document that an accurate oxygen saturation reading cannot be obtained
• B. Elevate the client's hands for five minutes prior to obtaining a reading from the finger
• C. Increase the oxygen based on the client's breathing patterns and lung sounds
• D. Place the oximeter clip on the earlobe to obtain the oxygen saturation reading

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Placing the oximeter clip on the earlobe is appropriate for clients with poor peripheral circulation, such as those with weak and thread pedal pulses due to bilateral below-the-knee amputations. This placement can provide a more accurate reading of oxygen saturation in such clients. Choice A is incorrect because alternative methods, such as earlobe placement, can be used to obtain accurate readings. Choice B is unnecessary and not related to obtaining an accurate oxygen saturation reading. Choice C is incorrect because increasing oxygen without assessing the oxygen saturation level first can be detrimental and is not based on evidence-based practice.

4. Which client requires careful nursing assessment for signs and symptoms of hypomagnesemia?

• A. A young adult client with intractable vomiting from food poisoning
• B. A client who developed hyperparathyroidism in late adolescence
• C. A middle-aged male client in renal failure following an unsuccessful kidney transplant
• D. A female client who is overzealous with her intake of simple carbohydrates

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Vomiting can lead to significant loss of magnesium, causing hypomagnesemia. In this scenario, the young adult client with intractable vomiting from food poisoning is at higher risk of developing hypomagnesemia due to the loss of magnesium through vomiting. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to present with hypomagnesemia. Hyperparathyroidism (B) is associated with hypercalcemia, renal failure (C) can lead to hypermagnesemia, and overconsumption of simple carbohydrates (D) is not directly linked to magnesium imbalances.

5. A 20-year-old female client tells the nurse that her menstrual periods occur about every 28 days, and her breasts are quite tender when her menstrual flow is heavy. She also states that she performs her breast self-examination (BSE) on the first day of every month. What action should the nurse implement in response to the client’s statements?

• A. Remind the client that it is also important to schedule an annual mammogram.
• B. Refer the client to a nurse practitioner for an in-depth review of the BSE procedure.
• C. Encourage the client to perform BSE 2 to 3 days after her menstrual period ends.
• D. Instruct the client to continue with her regular monthly exams as she is doing.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to encourage the client to perform BSE 2 to 3 days after her menstrual period ends. This timing is recommended because breasts are least tender and swollen at this point, making it easier to detect any abnormalities. Choice A is incorrect because while scheduling an annual mammogram is important, it is not the immediate action needed based on the client's statements. Choice B is incorrect as the client's BSE technique timing needs adjustment rather than an in-depth review by a nurse practitioner. Choice D is incorrect because the client should modify the timing of the BSE for better effectiveness.

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