Nursing Elites

1. The nurse plans to collect a 24-hour urine specimen for a creatinine clearance test. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the adult male client?

• A. Urinate at the specified time, discard this urine, and collect all subsequent urine over the next 24 hours.
• B. Cleanse around the meatus, discard the first portion of voiding, and collect the rest in a sterile bottle.
• C. For the next 24 hours, notify the nurse when the bladder is full, and the nurse will collect catheterized specimens.
• D. Urinate immediately into a urinal, and the lab will collect the specimen every 6 hours for the next 24 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the adult male client to follow when collecting a 24-hour urine specimen for a creatinine clearance test is to urinate at the specified time, discard this urine, and collect all subsequent urine over the next 24 hours. This method ensures proper collection for an accurate creatinine clearance measurement. Choice B is incorrect as it describes a different procedure for a clean-catch urine sample, not suitable for creatinine clearance. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests catheterization, which is not typically done for a creatinine clearance test, and it is not necessary for this procedure. Choice D is incorrect as it does not follow the standard procedure for a 24-hour urine collection for creatinine clearance; the urine should be collected continuously over 24 hours, not at specified intervals.

2. After witnessing a preoperative client sign the surgical consent form, what are the legal implications of the nurse's signature on the client's form as a witness?

• A. The client voluntarily grants permission for the procedure to be done
• B. The surgeon has explained to the client why the surgery is necessary
• C. The client is competent to sign the consent without impairment of judgment
• D. The client understands the risks and benefits associated with the procedure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse's signature on the consent form signifies that the client is competent to sign the consent without impairment of judgment. This legal implication ensures that the client possesses the necessary capacity to make decisions about their healthcare. Choice A is incorrect because the nurse's signature does not imply the client's voluntary permission for the procedure. Choice B is incorrect as it pertains to the surgeon's responsibility, not the nurse's. Choice D is incorrect as the nurse's signature does not confirm the client's understanding of the risks and benefits associated with the procedure.

3. During the administration of albuterol per nebulizer, the client complains of shakiness. The client’s vital signs are heart rate 120 beats/minute, respirations 20 breaths/minute, blood pressure 140/80. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Administer an anxiolytic
• B. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram
• C. Stop the albuterol administration and restart in 30 minutes
• D. Educate the client about the side effects of albuterol

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Shakiness is a known side effect of albuterol, which can often be managed without the need for additional medications. Educating the client about the potential side effects of albuterol, including shakiness, helps them understand what to expect and how to manage these effects. Administering an anxiolytic (Choice A) is not indicated as shakiness related to albuterol is not a sign of anxiety. Obtaining a 12-lead electrocardiogram (Choice B) is not necessary based on the client's presentation of shakiness and vital signs. Stopping the albuterol administration and restarting in 30 minutes (Choice C) may not be necessary since shakiness is a common side effect that can often be managed without interrupting the treatment.

4. The nurse is planning care for a client with end-stage lung cancer. The client expresses concern about ongoing pain management. Which nursing action is most appropriate to include in the plan of care?

• A. Consult the healthcare provider for recommendations on pain management
• B. Schedule the client for physical therapy to manage pain
• C. Recommend the client attend a support group for cancer patients
• D. Suggest alternative therapies like acupuncture or massage

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Consulting the healthcare provider for recommendations on pain management is the most appropriate action. The healthcare provider can assess the client's pain, prescribe appropriate medications, and adjust the pain management plan as needed. In end-stage cancer, managing pain often requires pharmacological interventions that the healthcare provider can best provide. Physical therapy (choice B) may not be the primary intervention for pain management in end-stage cancer. While attending a support group (choice C) can provide emotional support, it does not directly address the client's pain management concerns. Suggesting alternative therapies (choice D) is not the initial step; consulting the healthcare provider should come first to ensure a comprehensive and tailored pain management plan.

5. A client is admitted to the intensive care unit with diabetes insipidus due to a pituitary gland tumor. Which potential complication should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Ketonuria
• C. Peripheral edema
• D. Elevated blood pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. In diabetes insipidus, there is excessive urination leading to fluid loss, which can result in electrolyte imbalances such as hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Ketonuria is typically seen in diabetic ketoacidosis, peripheral edema is more commonly associated with conditions like heart failure or kidney disease, and elevated blood pressure is not a direct complication of diabetes insipidus related to a pituitary gland tumor.

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