HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam
1. The parents of a 6-year-old recently diagnosed with asthma should be taught that the symptom of acute episodes of asthma is due to which physiological response?
- A. Inflammation of the mucous membrane & bronchospasm
- B. Increased mucus production and bronchoconstriction
- C. Allergic reactions and hyperventilation
- D. Airway narrowing and decreased lung capacity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inflammation of the mucous membrane & bronchospasm. Acute asthma episodes are primarily caused by inflammation of the airways and bronchospasm, which lead to airway obstruction. Increased mucus production and bronchoconstriction (Choice B) are part of the physiological responses in asthma but do not directly cause acute episodes. Allergic reactions and hyperventilation (Choice C) are related to asthma triggers and responses but are not the direct causes of acute episodes. Airway narrowing and decreased lung capacity (Choice D) are consequences of inflammation and bronchospasm but do not explain the physiological response leading to acute asthma episodes.
2. In a client in her third trimester of pregnancy, an S3 heart sound is auscultated. What intervention should the nurse take?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider
- B. Limit the client’s fluids
- C. Prepare the client for an echocardiogram
- D. Document in the client’s record
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An S3 heart sound can be a normal finding in pregnancy due to increased blood volume and flow. In this scenario, there is no immediate need for further interventions. Documenting this finding in the client's record is essential for tracking the client's health status and ensuring proper follow-up if needed. Notifying the healthcare provider, limiting fluids, or preparing for an echocardiogram is unnecessary as it is likely a physiological finding in pregnancy. These interventions should only be considered if other symptoms suggestive of a cardiac issue are present.
3. After changing to a new brand of laundry detergent, an adult male reports that he has a fine itchy rash. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Bilateral Wheezing
- B. Urticaria
- C. Peripheral edema
- D. Elevated blood pressure
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Urticaria. An itchy rash following a change in detergent may indicate an allergic reaction, specifically urticaria (hives), which requires immediate attention. Urticaria can be a sign of a severe allergic reaction, such as anaphylaxis. Bilateral wheezing (choice A) may suggest respiratory issues like asthma but is not directly related to the skin rash. Peripheral edema (choice C) and elevated blood pressure (choice D) are not typically associated with an allergic reaction to laundry detergent and would not be the priority assessment findings in this scenario.
4. In what order should the nurse assess a lethargic one-hour-old infant brought to the nursery?
- A. Heel stick
- B. Respirations
- C. Heart rate
- D. Temperature
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When assessing a lethargic one-hour-old infant, the nurse should prioritize assessing the most critical parameters first. Temperature and heart rate are vital signs that provide immediate information about the infant's well-being. Therefore, the correct order of assessment should be temperature, heart rate, respirations, and then a heel stick. Temperature is crucial to determine if the infant is hypothermic or hyperthermic, while heart rate gives insight into the circulatory system's function. Respirations follow to evaluate the infant's breathing pattern. Lastly, the heel stick is important for certain screenings but is not as urgent as evaluating temperature and heart rate in a lethargic infant.
5. A client with a BMI of 60.2 kg/m² is admitted to the intensive care unit 3 weeks after gastric bypass with gastric rupture and impending multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS). What should the nurse prepare to implement first?
- A. Mechanical ventilation
- B. Platelet transfusion
- C. Loop diuretic therapy
- D. Cyanocobalamin administration
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this critical situation with gastric rupture and impending MODS, the priority intervention should be mechanical ventilation. This client is at risk of respiratory compromise due to the severity of the condition. Platelet transfusion (Choice B) is not the priority as there is no indication of significant bleeding. Loop diuretic therapy (Choice C) and cyanocobalamin administration (Choice D) are not the immediate priorities in this scenario and would not address the urgent need for respiratory support.
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