Nursing Elites

1. The parents of a 6-year-old recently diagnosed with asthma should be taught that the symptom of acute episodes of asthma is due to which physiological response?

• A. Inflammation of the mucous membrane & bronchospasm
• B. Increased mucus production and bronchoconstriction
• C. Allergic reactions and hyperventilation
• D. Airway narrowing and decreased lung capacity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inflammation of the mucous membrane & bronchospasm. Acute asthma episodes are primarily caused by inflammation of the airways and bronchospasm, which lead to airway obstruction. Increased mucus production and bronchoconstriction (Choice B) are part of the physiological responses in asthma but do not directly cause acute episodes. Allergic reactions and hyperventilation (Choice C) are related to asthma triggers and responses but are not the direct causes of acute episodes. Airway narrowing and decreased lung capacity (Choice D) are consequences of inflammation and bronchospasm but do not explain the physiological response leading to acute asthma episodes.

2. When lactulose (Cephulac) 30 ml QID is prescribed for a male client with advanced cirrhosis, and he complains that it causes diarrhea, what action should the nurse take in response to the client’s statement?

• A. Explain that diarrhea is expected, but the drug reduces ammonia levels
• B. Document that the client is non-compliant with his treatment plan
• C. Tell the client to be concerned about more significant side effects of this drug
• D. Obtain a prescription for loperamide (Imodium) 4mg PO PRN diarrhea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Diarrhea is an expected side effect of lactulose when used to reduce ammonia levels in cirrhosis. It helps in decreasing the absorption of ammonia in the colon, thereby reducing its levels in the blood. Option B is incorrect because it is essential for the nurse to educate the client about the expected side effects of the medication rather than assuming non-compliance. Option C is incorrect as it instills unnecessary fear in the client by suggesting more significant side effects without addressing the current concern. Option D is incorrect as loperamide should not be given automatically for diarrhea caused by lactulose, as the diarrhea is a therapeutic effect of the medication in this context.

3. A male client with diabetes mellitus takes NPH/regular 70/30 insulin before meals and azithromycin PO daily, using medication he brought from home. When the nurse delivers his breakfast tray, the client tells the nurse that he took his insulin but forgot to take his daily dose of azithromycin an hour before breakfast as instructed. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Provide a PRN dose of an antacid to take with the azithromycin right after breakfast
• B. Offer to obtain a new breakfast tray in an hour so the client can take the azithromycin
• C. Instruct the client to eat his breakfast and take the azithromycin two hours after eating
• D. Tell the client to skip that day's dose and resume taking the azithromycin the next day

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Azithromycin should ideally be taken on an empty stomach; however, if taken after breakfast, it should not affect its efficacy. Instructing the client to eat his breakfast and take the azithromycin two hours after eating allows for proper absorption without compromising its effectiveness. Providing an antacid with azithromycin is not necessary in this case. Offering a new breakfast tray in an hour or skipping the dose is not the best course of action as it may lead to missed doses and potential effectiveness issues.

4. A client diagnosed with a deep vein thrombus (DVT) followed by a diagnosis of pulmonary embolism (PE) is receiving heparin via an infusion pump at a rate of 1400 u/hour. The client tells the nurse, “I wish this medicine would hurry up and dissolve this clot in my lung so that I can go home”. What response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. Heparin prevents further clot formation, but your risk of bleeding needs to be monitored closely
• B. You seem to be concerned about the length of time it takes for Heparin to dissolve this clot
• C. Let me contact your healthcare provider to discuss the possibility of receiving IV heparin therapy at home
• D. Why are you so anxious to leave the hospital when you know you are not well enough yet?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A: 'Heparin prevents further clot formation, but your risk of bleeding needs to be monitored closely.' Heparin is an anticoagulant that prevents further clot formation, but it does not quickly dissolve existing clots. It is crucial for the nurse to educate the client about the purpose of heparin and the necessity for close monitoring of bleeding risks. Choice B is incorrect as it does not address the misunderstanding about heparin's mechanism of action. Choice C is incorrect as home administration of IV heparin therapy requires careful consideration and should not be suggested without a thorough assessment. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the client's misconception about heparin's role in dissolving clots and instead focuses on the client's desire to leave the hospital.

5. After years of struggling with weight management, a middle-aged man is evaluated for gastroplasty. He has experienced difficulty managing his diabetes mellitus and hypertension, but he is approved for surgery. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this client’s plan of care?

• A. Monitor for signs of depression
• B. Apply sequential compression stockings
• C. Provide a wide variety of meal choices
• D. Observe for signs of depression

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Observing for signs of depression is crucial in this patient's plan of care as depression can impact his overall recovery and management post-surgery. Depression is common in individuals struggling with weight management, diabetes mellitus, and hypertension. Monitoring for urinary incontinence (Choice A) is not the priority in this case as the patient is undergoing gastroplasty for weight management, not a urinary issue. Applying sequential compression stockings (Choice B) is important for preventing deep vein thrombosis in immobile patients but is not the priority in this scenario. Providing a wide variety of meal choices (Choice C) is not the most crucial intervention at this stage, as post-gastroplasty dietary restrictions are essential for successful weight management.

Similar Questions