HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam
1. The parents of a 6-year-old recently diagnosed with asthma should be taught that the symptom of acute episodes of asthma is due to which physiological response?
- A. Inflammation of the mucous membrane & bronchospasm
- B. Increased mucus production and bronchoconstriction
- C. Allergic reactions and hyperventilation
- D. Airway narrowing and decreased lung capacity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inflammation of the mucous membrane & bronchospasm. Acute asthma episodes are primarily caused by inflammation of the airways and bronchospasm, which lead to airway obstruction. Increased mucus production and bronchoconstriction (Choice B) are part of the physiological responses in asthma but do not directly cause acute episodes. Allergic reactions and hyperventilation (Choice C) are related to asthma triggers and responses but are not the direct causes of acute episodes. Airway narrowing and decreased lung capacity (Choice D) are consequences of inflammation and bronchospasm but do not explain the physiological response leading to acute asthma episodes.
2. The healthcare provider is completing a head-to-toe assessment for a client admitted for observation after falling out of a tree. Which finding warrants immediate intervention by the healthcare provider?
- A. Sluggish pupillary response to light
- B. Clear fluid leaking from the nose
- C. Complaint of severe headache
- D. Periorbital ecchymosis of the right eye
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Clear fluid leaking from the nose is concerning for cerebrospinal fluid leakage, which is a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention. Sluggish pupillary response to light may indicate neurological issues but is not as urgent as CSF leakage. Complaint of severe headache is important but not as critical as the possibility of CSF leakage. Periorbital ecchymosis of the right eye could be indicative of trauma but does not pose an immediate threat to the patient's life.
3. Where should the nurse choose as the best location to begin a screening program for hypothyroidism?
- A. A business and professional women's group.
- B. An African-American senior citizens center.
- C. A daycare center in a Hispanic neighborhood.
- D. An after-school center for Native-American teens.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best location for beginning a screening program for hypothyroidism would be an African-American senior citizens center. This choice is the most suitable as hypothyroidism is more prevalent among older adults, and African-American seniors are at a higher risk for this condition due to various factors like genetics and lifestyle. Choices A, C, and D are less appropriate because hypothyroidism is not specifically linked to business and professional women, Hispanic children, or Native-American teens. Targeting the high-risk group, which in this case, are African-American seniors, increases the chances of successful screening and early detection.
4. After receiving a report on an inpatient acute care unit, which client should the nurse assess first?
- A. The client with bowel obstruction due to a volvulus who is experiencing abdominal rigidity
- B. The client who had surgery yesterday and is experiencing a paralytic ileus with absent bowel sounds
- C. The client with an obstruction of the large intestine who is experiencing abdominal distention
- D. The client with a small bowel obstruction who has a nasogastric tube that is draining greenish fluid
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Abdominal rigidity in a client with bowel obstruction due to a volvulus indicates possible complications and requires immediate assessment. Choice B is incorrect because although a paralytic ileus with absent bowel sounds is concerning, abdominal rigidity in a client with a volvulus takes priority. Choice C is incorrect as abdominal distention, though indicative of an obstruction, is not as urgent as the sign of abdominal rigidity. Choice D is incorrect as the drainage of greenish fluid from a nasogastric tube in a client with a small bowel obstruction, while concerning, does not present as immediate a threat as the abdominal rigidity in a client with a volvulus.
5. A client with a prescription for “do not resuscitate” (DNR) begins to manifest signs of impending death. After notifying the family of the client’s status, what priority action should the nurse implement?
- A. Assess the client’s need for pain medication
- B. Document the impending signs of death
- C. Inform the nurse manager of the client’s status
- D. Communicate the client’s status to the chaplain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Assessing the client’s need for pain medication is the priority action as it ensures comfort at the end of life. Pain management is crucial in providing comfort and dignity to clients during their final moments. Documenting impending signs of death (choice B) is important but not the immediate priority over addressing the client's comfort. Updating the nurse manager (choice C) and informing the chaplain (choice D) can follow once the client's immediate needs are met.
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