the nurse observes that a client who is to avoid any weight bearing on the left leg is using a 3 point crutch gait for ambulation what is the best act
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1. The client who is to avoid any weight-bearing on the left leg is using a 3-point crutch gait for ambulation. What is the best action for the nurse to initiate?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the client needs to avoid weight-bearing on the left leg. A 4-point crutch gait involves using both crutches and both legs, making it more appropriate for weight-bearing restrictions. Encouraging the use of a 3-point gait (choice A) would not provide adequate support for the client's condition. While using a wheelchair (choice B) could be an option, instructing the client in a 4-point crutch gait would promote mobility while adhering to weight-bearing restrictions. A 2-point crutch gait (choice D) involves using both crutches and one leg, which is not suitable for avoiding weight-bearing on the left leg.

2. The urinary drainage of a client with continuous bladder irrigation is becoming increasingly red. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Increasing the irrigation rate can help clear any blood clots and reduce the redness in the urinary drainage. This intervention aims to improve the flushing of the bladder and potentially resolve the issue. Lowering the head of the bed would not directly address the red urinary drainage. Milking the catheter tubing is not recommended as it can cause trauma to the catheter or bladder, leading to further complications. While evaluating for fluid overload is an important nursing consideration, it does not directly address the immediate concern of redness in the urinary drainage, which requires a focused intervention to clear any blockages or clots in the system.

3. What actions should the nurse take regarding an older adult male who had an abdominal cholecystectomy and has become increasingly confused and disoriented over the past 24 hours, found wandering into another client’s room and returned to his own room by the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? (Select all that apply)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this situation, the appropriate action for the nurse to take is to report the mental status change to the healthcare provider. Confusion and disorientation post-surgery can be indicative of various factors, such as electrolyte imbalances or respiratory issues, necessitating comprehensive assessment by the healthcare team. Applying restraints and raising bed rails may not address the underlying cause of the confusion, and assigning the UAP to reassess the client's risk for falls does not directly address the cognitive changes observed.

4. An adult suffered burns to the face and chest resulting from a grease fire. On admission, the client was intubated, and a 2-liter bolus of normal saline was administered IV. Currently, the normal saline is infusing at 250 ml/hour. The client’s heart rate is 120 beats/minute, blood pressure is 90/50 mmHg, respirations are 12 breaths/minute over the ventilated 12 breaths for a total of 24 breaths/minute, and the central venous pressure (CVP) is 4 mm H2O. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention is to infuse an additional bolus of normal saline. The client's presentation with a heart rate of 120 beats/minute, hypotensive blood pressure of 90/50 mmHg, and low CVP of 4 mm H2O indicates hypovolemic shock. Administering more normal saline can help in restoring intravascular volume and improving perfusion. Increasing the rate of normal saline infusion (Choice A) is not the best choice as it may lead to fluid overload. Lowering the head of the bed to a recumbent position (Choice C) could worsen hypotension by reducing venous return. Bringing a tracheostomy tray to the bedside (Choice D) is not a priority at this time as the client is already intubated, and the immediate concern is addressing the hypovolemia.

5. A male client, admitted to the mental health unit for a somatoform disorder, becomes angry because he cannot have his pain medication. He demands that the nurse call the healthcare provider and threatens to leave the hospital. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should prioritize ensuring safety. When a client becomes aggressive and threatens to leave, calling security is crucial to help maintain a safe environment for both staff and the client. Placing the client in seclusion (choice A) is not the appropriate initial action as it may escalate the situation further. Administering lorazepam (choice B) should not be the first response to behavioral issues. Asking about other pain management methods (choice D) is not the immediate priority when safety is at risk.

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