HESI LPN
Adult Health 1 Final Exam
1. The nurse observes that a male client's urinary catheter (Foley) drainage tubing is secured with tape to his abdomen and then attached to the bed frame. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Raise the bed to ensure the drainage bag remains off the floor
- B. Attach the drainage bag to the side rail instead of the bed frame
- C. Observe the appearance of the urine in the drainage tubing
- D. Secure the tubing to the client's gown instead of his abdomen
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to secure the tubing to the client's gown instead of his abdomen. Securing the tubing to the client's abdomen can cause discomfort, trauma to the urethra, and increase the risk of infection. Attaching the drainage bag to the bed frame can lead to tension on the catheter, increasing the risk of dislodgement or trauma. Raising the bed does not address the issue of incorrect tubing securing. Observing the appearance of urine is important but secondary to ensuring proper tubing attachment.
2. Before a client undergoes a Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) scan with contrast, what should the nurse assess?
- A. If the client has any metal implants
- B. If the client has allergies to iodine or shellfish
- C. If the client has a history of claustrophobia
- D. If the client has ever had a similar procedure before
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Before an MRI scan with contrast, the nurse should assess if the client has any metal implants. Metal implants can interfere with the magnetic field of the MRI, which can pose a risk to the client's safety and compromise the quality of the scan. Assessing for allergies to iodine or shellfish (Choice B) is important for contrast agents but not specific to metal implants. Claustrophobia assessment (Choice C) is relevant for MRI scans due to the confined space but not specific to metal implants. Past procedures (Choice D) are important for comparison but not directly related to the risks associated with metal implants during an MRI scan with contrast.
3. A client with a history of asthma is experiencing wheezing and shortness of breath. What is the priority nursing intervention?
- A. Administer a bronchodilator as prescribed
- B. Encourage the client to drink fluids
- C. Place the client in an upright position
- D. Assess the client's peak flow rate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering a bronchodilator as prescribed is the priority nursing intervention for a client experiencing wheezing and shortness of breath due to asthma. Bronchodilators help relieve bronchoconstriction, allowing better airflow and improving breathing. Encouraging the client to drink fluids may be beneficial in certain situations, but it is not the priority when the client is in respiratory distress. Placing the client in an upright position, not supine, can facilitate easier breathing by allowing the chest to expand fully. While assessing the client's peak flow rate is important in asthma management, in this acute situation, the priority is to provide immediate relief by administering the bronchodilator.
4. A client is prescribed warfarin for the prevention of thromboembolism. What dietary instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Increase intake of green leafy vegetables
- B. Maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K-rich foods
- C. Avoid all foods containing vitamin K
- D. Consume a high-protein diet
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Maintaining a consistent intake of vitamin K-rich foods is important for patients taking warfarin as it helps keep the effects of the medication stable. Choice A is incorrect because while green leafy vegetables are high in vitamin K, they should not be avoided completely but rather consumed consistently. Choice C is also incorrect as avoiding all foods containing vitamin K can lead to fluctuations in warfarin's effectiveness. Choice D is incorrect as a high-protein diet is not specifically recommended for patients taking warfarin.
5. A new father asks the nurse the reason for placing an ophthalmic ointment in his newborn's eyes. What information should the nurse provide?
- A. Possible exposure to an environmental staphylococcus infection can infect the newborn's eyes and cause visual deficits
- B. The newborn is at risk for blindness from a corneal syphilitic infection acquired from a mother's infected vagina
- C. Treatment prevents tear duct obstruction with harmful exudate from a vaginal birth that can lead to dry eyes in the newborn
- D. State law mandates all newborns receive prophylactic treatment to prevent gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because informing about state law emphasizes the legal requirement and public health rationale behind prophylactic eye treatment to prevent serious infections like gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A focuses on staphylococcus infection, which is not the primary concern addressed by the prophylactic ointment. Choice B mentions a specific infection acquired from the mother's infected vagina, which is not the main reason for the ophthalmic ointment. Choice C discusses tear duct obstruction and dry eyes, which are not the primary concerns addressed by the prophylactic ointment.
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