Nursing Elites

1. The nurse observes that a male client's urinary catheter (Foley) drainage tubing is secured with tape to his abdomen and then attached to the bed frame. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Raise the bed to ensure the drainage bag remains off the floor
• B. Attach the drainage bag to the side rail instead of the bed frame
• C. Observe the appearance of the urine in the drainage tubing
• D. Secure the tubing to the client's gown instead of his abdomen

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to secure the tubing to the client's gown instead of his abdomen. Securing the tubing to the client's abdomen can cause discomfort, trauma to the urethra, and increase the risk of infection. Attaching the drainage bag to the bed frame can lead to tension on the catheter, increasing the risk of dislodgement or trauma. Raising the bed does not address the issue of incorrect tubing securing. Observing the appearance of urine is important but secondary to ensuring proper tubing attachment.

2. A client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder is prescribed lithium. Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hyponatremia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hypercalcemia
• D. Hypernatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyponatremia. Lithium can affect sodium levels in the body, potentially leading to hyponatremia, which is a condition characterized by low sodium levels. This imbalance requires close monitoring as it can lead to symptoms such as confusion, weakness, and even seizures. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because lithium is not primarily associated with causing hypokalemia, hypercalcemia, or hypernatremia. While these imbalances can occur in certain conditions or with other medications, the main electrolyte imbalance to monitor when a client is prescribed lithium is hyponatremia.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with an intravenous infusion of normal saline. The client reports pain and swelling at the IV site. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Slow the rate of infusion
• B. Apply a warm compress to the site
• C. Discontinue the IV infusion
• D. Elevate the affected arm

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to discontinue the IV infusion (Choice C). Pain and swelling at the IV site can indicate infiltration or phlebitis, which are serious complications that require immediate action. Slowing the rate of infusion (Choice A) may not address the underlying issue and can potentially worsen the condition. Applying a warm compress (Choice B) may provide temporary relief but does not address the need to discontinue the infusion. Elevating the affected arm (Choice D) is not the priority in this situation; discontinuing the infusion takes precedence to prevent further harm.

4. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of pneumonia. Which intervention should the nurse implement to promote airway clearance?

• A. Administer bronchodilators as prescribed.
• B. Encourage increased fluid intake.
• C. Perform chest physiotherapy.
• D. Provide humidified oxygen.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging increased fluid intake is the most appropriate intervention to promote airway clearance in a client with pneumonia. Adequate hydration helps to thin respiratory secretions, making it easier for the client to cough up and clear the airways. Administering bronchodilators (Choice A) may help with bronchospasm but does not directly promote airway clearance. Chest physiotherapy (Choice C) can be beneficial in certain cases but may not be the initial intervention for promoting airway clearance. Providing humidified oxygen (Choice D) can help improve oxygenation but does not specifically target airway clearance in pneumonia.

5. A client with a history of seizure disorder who is receiving phenytoin (Dilantin) is being discharged. Which instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Take the medication at bedtime.
• B. Monitor drug levels regularly.
• C. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
• D. Take the medication at the same time every day.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to monitor drug levels regularly. This is crucial for phenytoin (Dilantin) to ensure that the medication levels are within the therapeutic range and to prevent toxicity. Choice A, taking the medication at bedtime, is not specifically required for phenytoin administration. Choice C, avoiding alcohol, is generally a good practice with medications but is not as critical as monitoring drug levels for phenytoin. Choice D, taking the medication at the same time every day, is important for consistency but does not address the specific monitoring needs of phenytoin.

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