HESI LPN
Adult Health 1 Final Exam
1. What is the most important action to prevent complications while caring for a client receiving enteral nutrition via a nasogastric tube?
- A. Check tube placement before each feeding
- B. Flush the tube with water before and after each feeding
- C. Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees
- D. Administer the feeding at room temperature
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Checking tube placement before each feeding is crucial to prevent aspiration, a serious complication of enteral nutrition. Ensuring the tube is correctly positioned in the stomach helps avoid the risk of the feeding going into the lungs, which can lead to aspiration pneumonia. Flushing the tube with water (Choice B) is important for maintaining tube patency but is not the most critical action to prevent complications. Elevating the head of the bed (Choice C) helps reduce the risk of aspiration but is not as crucial as verifying tube placement. Administering the feeding at room temperature (Choice D) is more related to patient comfort and does not directly address the prevention of complications associated with enteral nutrition via a nasogastric tube.
2. The nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for surgery in the morning. The client reports drinking a glass of water at midnight. What should the nurse do?
- A. Notify the anesthesiologist
- B. Document the intake in the medical record
- C. Cancel the surgery
- D. Instruct the client to fast until the surgery
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the anesthesiologist. When a client reports drinking water close to the time of surgery, it is important to inform the anesthesiologist as it can impact the administration of anesthesia. The anesthesiologist needs this information to make decisions regarding anesthesia administration. Documenting the intake in the medical record is important for documentation purposes, but the immediate action needed is to inform the anesthesiologist. Canceling the surgery is not necessary based solely on the intake of water; the anesthesiologist will determine the appropriate course of action. Instructing the client to fast until the surgery may not be appropriate without consulting the anesthesiologist first, as the situation needs to be assessed by the anesthesia team.
3. The practical nurse is preparing to administer a prescription for cefazolin (Kefzol) 600 mg IM every six hours. The available vial is labeled, 'Cefazolin (Kefzol) 1 gram,' and the instructions for reconstitution state, 'For IM use add 2 ml sterile water for injection. Total volume after reconstitution = 2.5 ml.' When reconstituted, how many milligrams are in each milliliter of solution?
- A. 400 mg/mL
- B. 500 mg/mL
- C. 450 mg/mL
- D. 350 mg/mL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: After reconstitution, the concentration of cefazolin solution is calculated by dividing the total amount of drug (600 mg) by the total volume after reconstitution (2.5 mL). This gives 600 mg / 2.5 mL = 240 mg/mL. However, the question asks for the concentration in each milliliter of solution after reconstitution, so we need to consider the final volume of 2.5 mL. Therefore, 240 mg/mL * 2.5 mL = 600 mg, which means each milliliter contains 240 mg of cefazolin. Therefore, after reconstitution, there are 400 mg of cefazolin in each milliliter of solution. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the concentration after reconstitution.
4. A client is being treated for dehydration. Which clinical finding would indicate that treatment is effective?
- A. Dry mucous membranes
- B. Increased urine output
- C. Tachycardia
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased urine output. When a client is being treated for dehydration, increased urine output is a positive indication that the treatment is effective. This signifies that the body is beginning to rehydrate and eliminate excess fluid. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because dry mucous membranes, tachycardia, and hypotension are all associated with dehydration and would not be signs of effective treatment.
5. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI). Which intervention is a priority during the acute phase?
- A. Administer morphine for pain relief
- B. Encourage the client to perform isometric exercises
- C. Position the client flat in bed
- D. Restrict fluid intake
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During the acute phase of a myocardial infarction (MI), the priority intervention is to administer morphine for pain relief. Morphine not only alleviates pain but also reduces myocardial oxygen demand, which is crucial in the management of MI. Encouraging the client to perform isometric exercises (choice B) can increase myocardial oxygen demand and should be avoided during the acute phase. Positioning the client flat in bed (choice C) may worsen symptoms by increasing venous return and workload on the heart. Restricting fluid intake (choice D) is not a priority intervention during the acute phase of MI; maintaining adequate hydration is important for organ perfusion.
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