HESI LPN
Adult Health Exam 1
1. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is experiencing shortness of breath. What is the priority nursing intervention?
- A. Administer bronchodilator therapy as prescribed.
- B. Inhale the medication slowly while pressing down on the inhaler.
- C. Position the client in a high-Fowler's position.
- D. Increase the oxygen flow rate.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The priority nursing intervention for a client with COPD experiencing shortness of breath is to position the client in a high-Fowler's position. This position helps improve lung expansion and ease breathing by maximizing chest expansion and allowing for better airflow. While administering bronchodilator therapy is important, positioning the client for improved breathing takes priority. Inhaling the medication slowly and pressing down on the inhaler is a correct technique for inhaler use but not the priority intervention. Increasing the oxygen flow rate may be needed, but adjusting the client's position to a high-Fowler's position is the priority to address the shortness of breath in COPD.
2. The client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). What should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
- A. Increase potassium-rich foods in the diet
- B. Avoid foods high in sodium
- C. Monitor fluid intake and adjust as needed
- D. Take the medication in the morning
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase potassium-rich foods in the diet. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss as a side effect. By increasing potassium-rich foods, the client can help prevent hypokalemia, a potential complication of furosemide therapy. Choice B is incorrect because while limiting sodium intake is generally advisable for heart failure, it is not directly related to furosemide use. Choice C is incorrect because fluid intake should be monitored and adjusted based on the individual's condition, but setting a specific limit of 1 liter per day is not a standard recommendation. Choice D is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken in the morning to prevent disturbances in sleep due to increased urination during the night.
3. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ). Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'B. Hyponatremia.' Hydrochlorothiazide can lead to electrolyte imbalances, such as hyponatremia, due to its diuretic effect. This potential adverse effect should be closely monitored in patients taking HCTZ. Choice A, hyperkalemia, is less likely to occur with HCTZ as it tends to cause hypokalemia. Choice C, bradycardia, is not a common adverse effect of HCTZ. Choice D, hyperglycemia, is also less commonly associated with HCTZ use compared to hyponatremia.
4. A client has a prescription for enteric-coated (EC) aspirin 325mg PO daily. The medication drawer contains one 325mg aspirin. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Contact the pharmacy and request the prescribed form of aspirin
- B. Instruct the client about the effects of the medication
- C. Administer the aspirin with a full glass of water or a small snack
- D. Withhold the aspirin until consulting with the healthcare provider
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to contact the pharmacy and request the prescribed form of aspirin. Enteric-coated medications are designed to dissolve in the intestine, not the stomach, to avoid irritation. Therefore, it is essential to ensure the client receives the correct form of aspirin as prescribed. Instructing the client about the effects of the medication (choice B) is not necessary at this point as the issue is related to the form of the aspirin. Administering the aspirin with a full glass of water or a small snack (choice C) is not appropriate as it does not address the need for the correct form of the medication. Withholding the aspirin (choice D) without consulting the healthcare provider is not advisable as it may lead to a delay in the client receiving the necessary medication.
5. A client with hemorrhoids asks for information about a high fiber diet. Which breakfast menu items should the nurse suggest? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Raisin bran muffins
- B. Bowl of oatmeal
- C. Cup of raspberries
- D. Scrambled eggs
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A high-fiber diet is beneficial for managing hemorrhoids as it helps maintain bowel regularity. Raisin bran muffins are a good choice for breakfast as they are high in fiber. Oatmeal is also a high-fiber option that aids digestion and prevents constipation. Raspberries are rich in fiber and contribute to a high-fiber diet. Scrambled eggs, on the other hand, are not high in fiber and do not provide the necessary fiber content needed for managing hemorrhoids.
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