Nursing Elites

1. Several clients on a busy antepartum unit are scheduled for procedures that require informed consent. Which situation should the nurse explore further before witnessing the client's signature on the consent form?

• A. The client was medicated for pain with a narcotic analgesic IM 6 hours ago
• B. A 15-year-old primigravida who has been self-supporting for the past 6 months
• C. The obstetrician explained a procedure that a neurologist will perform
• D. The client is illiterate but verbalizes understanding and consent for the procedure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because an illiterate client may require additional support to ensure they fully comprehend the information provided in the informed consent process. It is crucial to confirm that the client truly understands the nature of the procedure, its risks, and benefits. While it is important to assess pain control (choice A), a client's previous medication administration does not directly impact their ability to understand the consent process. Choice B, a 15-year-old primigravida who has been self-supporting, may legally provide informed consent depending on the jurisdiction and circumstances, so this situation may not require further exploration. Choice C, explaining a procedure by a different specialist, does not necessarily require additional exploration before witnessing the client's consent.

2. The nurse is completing a neurological assessment on a client with a closed head injury. The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score was 13 on admission. It is now assessed at 6. What is the priority nursing intervention based on the client’s current GCS?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider of the GCS score
• B. Prepare the family for the client’s imminent death
• C. Monitor the client q1 hour for changes in the GCS score
• D. Begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A significant drop in GCS indicates a severe decline in neurological status, necessitating immediate communication with the healthcare provider. Notifying the healthcare provider allows for prompt evaluation and intervention to address the worsening condition. Choice B is incorrect because preparing the family for imminent death is premature and not supported by the information provided. Choice C is incorrect as the frequency of monitoring should be increased to every 15 minutes rather than every hour due to the significant drop in GCS. Choice D is incorrect because initiating CPR is not indicated based solely on a decreased GCS score.

3. A male client with angina pectoris is being discharged from the hospital. What instructions should the nurse plan to include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Engage in physical exercise before eating to help decrease cholesterol levels.
• B. Avoid walking briskly in cold weather to prevent a decrease in cardiac output.
• C. Keep nitroglycerin in a light-colored plastic bottle and readily available.
• D. Avoid all isometric exercises, but walk regularly.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to keep nitroglycerin in a light-colored container and readily available. Nitroglycerin should be protected from light to maintain its effectiveness. Option A is incorrect because physical exercise immediately before eating can trigger angina. Option B is incorrect as cold weather can exacerbate angina symptoms. Option D is incorrect as isometric exercises can increase the workload on the heart, which is not recommended for individuals with angina.

4. An adult client with a broken femur is transferred to the medical-surgical unit to await surgical internal fixation after the application of an external traction device to stabilize the leg. An hour after an opioid analgesic was administered, the client reports muscle spasms and pain at the fracture site. While waiting for the client to be transported to surgery, which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Observe for signs of deep vein thrombosis.
• B. Administer a PRN dose of a muscle relaxant.
• C. Check the client’s most recent electrolyte values.
• D. Reduce the weight on the traction device.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer a PRN dose of a muscle relaxant. Muscle spasms and pain might be relieved by muscle relaxants, which are appropriate before surgery. Choice A is incorrect because the client is experiencing muscle spasms, not signs of deep vein thrombosis. Choice C is not the most immediate action needed in this situation. Choice D is incorrect because reducing the weight on the traction device would not directly address the muscle spasms and pain reported by the client.

5. Which type of Leukocyte is involved with allergic responses and the destruction of parasitic worms?

• A. Neutrophils
• B. Lymphocytes
• C. Eosinophils
• D. Monocytes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Eosinophils are the correct answer. Eosinophils are specialized white blood cells that play a crucial role in allergic responses and combating parasitic infections. They release substances to destroy parasites and modulate allergic reactions. Neutrophils (Choice A) are mainly involved in fighting bacterial infections. Lymphocytes (Choice B) play a key role in the immune response, including antibody production, but are not primarily responsible for combating parasites or allergic responses. Monocytes (Choice D) are involved in immune defense, differentiating into macrophages or dendritic cells, but they are not mainly associated with allergic responses or parasitic worm destruction.

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