Nursing Elites

1. An adult client presents to the clinic with large draining ulcers on both lower legs that are characteristic of Kaposi’s Sarcoma lesions. The client is accompanied by two family members. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Obtain a blood sample to determine if the client is HIV positive
• B. Send the family to the waiting area while conducting a head-to-toe assessment
• C. Complete a head-to-toe assessment to identify other signs of HIV
• D. Ask the family members to wear gloves when touching the client

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate action for the nurse to take is to complete a head-to-toe assessment to identify other signs of HIV. Kaposi’s Sarcoma is commonly associated with HIV infection, and conducting a comprehensive assessment can provide crucial information on potential signs and symptoms related to HIV. This information is essential for providing appropriate care and treatment. Option A is not the priority at this moment, as the focus should be on assessing the client comprehensively first. Sending the family members away (Option B) may not be necessary if they are not interfering with the assessment process. While infection control is important, asking the family members to wear gloves (Option D) is not the most critical action to take in this situation.

2. A client with eczema is experiencing severe pruritus. Which PRN prescription should the nurse administer?

• A. Topical corticosteroid
• B. Topical scabicide
• C. Topical alcohol rub
• D. Transdermal analgesic

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Topical corticosteroid. Topical corticosteroids are commonly used to manage itching in eczema by reducing inflammation and suppressing the immune response. In this case, for severe pruritus in eczema, a topical corticosteroid would be appropriate. Choice B, Topical scabicide, is used to treat scabies, not eczema. Choice C, Topical alcohol rub, is not typically used to manage pruritus in eczema. Choice D, Transdermal analgesic, is more for pain relief and not specifically targeted at managing itching associated with eczema.

3. The nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure who reports nocturia and dyspnea. The nurse identifies pulsus alternans and crackles in all lung fields. Which action is best to include in the client’s plan of care?

• A. Begin client education about positive inotropic medications.
• B. Place the client in Trendelenburg position.
• C. Prepare the client for an emergency cardiac catheterization.
• D. Monitor serum Troponin, CK, and CK-MB levels.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario described, the client is exhibiting signs of left-sided heart failure, such as dyspnea, nocturia, pulsus alternans, and crackles in all lung fields. Positive inotropic medications are commonly used in the treatment of heart failure to improve cardiac contractility and output. Therefore, beginning client education about positive inotropic medications is the best action to include in the client's plan of care. Choice B is incorrect because placing the client in Trendelenburg position is not indicated in the management of left-sided heart failure. Choice C is incorrect as emergency cardiac catheterization is not typically the initial intervention for left-sided heart failure. Choice D is incorrect as monitoring serum Troponin, CK, and CK-MB levels is more pertinent to assessing for myocardial infarction rather than managing heart failure.

4. The nurse is making assignments for a new graduate from a practical nursing program who is orienting to the unit. Because the unit is particularly busy this day, there will be little time to provide supervision of this new employee. Which client is the best for the nurse to assign this newly graduate practical nurse? A client

• A. Whose discharge has been delayed because of a postoperative infection
• B. With poorly controlled type 2 diabetes who is on a sliding scale for insulin administration
• C. Newly admitted with a head injury who requires frequent assessments
• D. Who is receiving IV heparin that is regulated based on protocol

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is option A because this client is the most stable and requires less supervision. Assigning a client whose discharge has been delayed due to a postoperative infection to the newly graduate practical nurse would be appropriate during a busy day as they are likely to need routine care and monitoring rather than immediate intensive interventions. Option B involves a client with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes on a sliding scale for insulin administration, which requires close monitoring and prompt intervention, making it a less suitable assignment for a new graduate who may need more guidance. Option C, a newly admitted patient with a head injury requiring frequent assessments, would demand a higher level of vigilance and expertise, which may be challenging for a new graduate nurse to handle without adequate supervision. Option D, a patient receiving IV heparin regulated based on protocol, involves complex medication management that may be too advanced for a new graduate nurse without sufficient oversight.

5. A premature infant weighing 1,200 grams at birth receives a prescription for beractant (Survanta) 120 mg endotracheal now and q6 hr for 24 hr. The recommended dose for beractant is 100 mg/kg birth weight per dose. Single-use vials of Survanta are labeled 100 mg/4 ml. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Give 4.8 ml q6 hr
• B. Notify the healthcare provider that the dose is too high
• C. Notify the healthcare provider that the dose is too low
• D. Give 1.2 ml q6 hr

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to give 4.8 ml q6 hr. To calculate the dose, you divide the prescribed dose of 120 mg by the concentration of Survanta, which is 100 mg per 4 ml. This results in 4.8 ml per dose, as 120 mg ÷ 100 mg/4 ml = 4.8 ml. Option B suggesting to notify the healthcare provider that the dose is too high is incorrect because the calculated dose of 4.8 ml is based on the recommended dose of 100 mg/kg birth weight. Option C suggesting to notify the healthcare provider that the dose is too low is incorrect as the calculated dose is based on the correct dosage calculation. Option D suggesting to give 1.2 ml q6 hr is incorrect because it doesn't align with the correct calculation.

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