Nursing Elites

1. What is the best response when a two-year-old boy begins to cry when his mother starts to leave?

• A. Say, 'Let's wave bye-bye to Mommy.'
• B. Say, 'Let me read this book to you.'
• C. Say, 'Two-year-olds usually stop crying the minute the parent leaves.'
• D. Say, 'Now, now, be a big boy, Mommy will be back soon.'

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best response in this situation is to offer a distraction to the child. Reading a book can help soothe the child during separation from the parent by redirecting their attention. Choice A might not be as effective as providing a distraction like reading a book. Choice C dismisses the child's feelings and generalizes behavior, which is not helpful. Choice D diminishes the child's emotions and does not provide a constructive way to help the child cope with the separation anxiety.

2. While eating at a restaurant, a gravid woman begins to choke and is unable to speak. What action should the nurse who witnesses the event take?

• A. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation with uterine tilt
• B. The Heimlich maneuver using chest thrusts
• C. The Heimlich maneuver using subdiaphragmatic thrusts
• D. Call 911 immediately then begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a pregnant woman is choking and unable to speak is to perform the Heimlich maneuver using subdiaphragmatic thrusts. This technique is recommended for a pregnant woman to prevent harm to the fetus. Option A, cardiopulmonary resuscitation with uterine tilt, is not indicated for a choking episode. Option B, the Heimlich maneuver using chest thrusts, can potentially harm the gravid uterus. Option D, calling 911 immediately before providing assistance, can lead to a delay in addressing the immediate choking emergency.

3. The nurse is assessing an older adult with type 2 diabetes. Which assessment finding indicates that the client understands long-term control of diabetes?

• A. The fasting blood sugar was 120 mg/dL this morning
• B. Urine ketones have been negative for the past 6 months
• C. The hemoglobin A1C was 6.5% last week
• D. No diabetic ketoacidosis has occurred in 6 months

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An A1C level of 6.5% indicates good long-term control of diabetes as it reflects the average blood sugar levels over the past 2-3 months. Monitoring fasting blood sugar provides immediate information about the current blood sugar level, while the absence of urine ketones indicates short-term control. Although the absence of diabetic ketoacidosis is positive, it doesn't specifically reflect long-term control like the A1C level does.

4. An older adult male is admitted with complications related to chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). He reports progressive dyspnea that worsens on exertion, and his weakness has increased over the past month. The nurse notes that he has dependent edema in both lower legs. Based on these assessment findings, which dietary instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Restrict daily fluid intake
• B. Eat meals at the same time daily
• C. Maintain a low-protein diet
• D. Limit the intake of high-calorie foods

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Dependent edema in both lower legs is a sign of fluid overload, which can exacerbate dyspnea in patients with COPD. Restricting daily fluid intake can help reduce the edema and alleviate breathing difficulties. A low-protein diet is not necessary unless there are specific renal concerns. Eating meals at the same time daily or limiting high-calorie foods is not directly associated with addressing fluid overload and dyspnea in COPD patients.

5. During the administration of albuterol per nebulizer, the client complains of shakiness. The client’s vital signs are heart rate 120 beats/minute, respirations 20 breaths/minute, blood pressure 140/80. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Administer an anxiolytic
• B. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram
• C. Stop the albuterol administration and restart in 30 minutes
• D. Educate the client about the side effects of albuterol

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Shakiness is a known side effect of albuterol, which can often be managed without the need for additional medications. Educating the client about the potential side effects of albuterol, including shakiness, helps them understand what to expect and how to manage these effects. Administering an anxiolytic (Choice A) is not indicated as shakiness related to albuterol is not a sign of anxiety. Obtaining a 12-lead electrocardiogram (Choice B) is not necessary based on the client's presentation of shakiness and vital signs. Stopping the albuterol administration and restarting in 30 minutes (Choice C) may not be necessary since shakiness is a common side effect that can often be managed without interrupting the treatment.

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