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HESI CAT
1. What is the best response when a two-year-old boy begins to cry when his mother starts to leave?
- A. Say, 'Let's wave bye-bye to Mommy.'
- B. Say, 'Let me read this book to you.'
- C. Say, 'Two-year-olds usually stop crying the minute the parent leaves.'
- D. Say, 'Now, now, be a big boy, Mommy will be back soon.'
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best response in this situation is to offer a distraction to the child. Reading a book can help soothe the child during separation from the parent by redirecting their attention. Choice A might not be as effective as providing a distraction like reading a book. Choice C dismisses the child's feelings and generalizes behavior, which is not helpful. Choice D diminishes the child's emotions and does not provide a constructive way to help the child cope with the separation anxiety.
2. A client with chronic kidney disease has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula in the left forearm. Which observation by the nurse indicates that the fistula is patent?
- A. Distended, tortuous veins in the left hand
- B. The left radial pulse is 2+ bounding
- C. Auscultation of a thrill on the left forearm
- D. Assessment of a bruit on the left forearm
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Auscultation of a thrill on the left forearm is the correct observation indicating that the AV fistula is patent. A thrill is a palpable vibration or buzzing sensation felt over the fistula, indicating the presence of blood flow. Choices A, B, and D do not directly assess the patency of the fistula. Distended, tortuous veins in the left hand may indicate venous hypertension; a bounding radial pulse could suggest increased blood flow through an artery, but it does not confirm fistula patency; assessment of a bruit indicates turbulent blood flow, but it does not confirm patency.
3. A premature infant weighing 1,200 grams at birth receives a prescription for beractant (Survanta) 120 mg endotracheal now and q6 hr for 24 hr. The recommended dose for beractant is 100 mg/kg birth weight per dose. Single-use vials of Survanta are labeled 100 mg/4 ml. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Give 4.8 ml q6 hr
- B. Notify the healthcare provider that the dose is too high
- C. Notify the healthcare provider that the dose is too low
- D. Give 1.2 ml q6 hr
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to give 4.8 ml q6 hr. To calculate the dose, you divide the prescribed dose of 120 mg by the concentration of Survanta, which is 100 mg per 4 ml. This results in 4.8 ml per dose, as 120 mg ÷ 100 mg/4 ml = 4.8 ml. Option B suggesting to notify the healthcare provider that the dose is too high is incorrect because the calculated dose of 4.8 ml is based on the recommended dose of 100 mg/kg birth weight. Option C suggesting to notify the healthcare provider that the dose is too low is incorrect as the calculated dose is based on the correct dosage calculation. Option D suggesting to give 1.2 ml q6 hr is incorrect because it doesn't align with the correct calculation.
4. A 10-year-old who has terminal brain cancer asks the nurse, 'What will happen to my body when I die?' How should the nurse respond?
- A. The heart will stop beating, and you will stop breathing.
- B. You will go to sleep and not wake up.
- C. Your body will stop functioning, and you will no longer feel pain.
- D. You will feel very tired, and your body will shut down slowly.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it provides a truthful yet sensitive response to the child's question. Saying that the body will stop functioning and that there will be no more pain helps the child understand what to expect without unnecessary details or causing distress. Choice A is too technical and may not be suitable for a child. Choice B might give the impression of a peaceful passing, which may not always be the case. Choice D introduces the concept of feeling tired, which might not be accurate or helpful in this context.
5. After years of struggling with weight management, a middle-aged man is evaluated for gastroplasty. He has experienced difficulty managing his diabetes mellitus and hypertension, but he is approved for surgery. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this client’s plan of care?
- A. Monitor for signs of depression
- B. Apply sequential compression stockings
- C. Provide a wide variety of meal choices
- D. Observe for signs of depression
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Observing for signs of depression is crucial in this patient's plan of care as depression can impact his overall recovery and management post-surgery. Depression is common in individuals struggling with weight management, diabetes mellitus, and hypertension. Monitoring for urinary incontinence (Choice A) is not the priority in this case as the patient is undergoing gastroplasty for weight management, not a urinary issue. Applying sequential compression stockings (Choice B) is important for preventing deep vein thrombosis in immobile patients but is not the priority in this scenario. Providing a wide variety of meal choices (Choice C) is not the most crucial intervention at this stage, as post-gastroplasty dietary restrictions are essential for successful weight management.
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