Nursing Elites

1. What is the best response when a two-year-old boy begins to cry when his mother starts to leave?

• A. Say, 'Let's wave bye-bye to Mommy.'
• B. Say, 'Let me read this book to you.'
• C. Say, 'Two-year-olds usually stop crying the minute the parent leaves.'
• D. Say, 'Now, now, be a big boy, Mommy will be back soon.'

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best response in this situation is to offer a distraction to the child. Reading a book can help soothe the child during separation from the parent by redirecting their attention. Choice A might not be as effective as providing a distraction like reading a book. Choice C dismisses the child's feelings and generalizes behavior, which is not helpful. Choice D diminishes the child's emotions and does not provide a constructive way to help the child cope with the separation anxiety.

2. An adult male who admits to abusing IV drugs obtains the results of HIV testing. When informed that the results are positive, he states that he does not want his wife to know. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Tell the client he is required by law to inform his sexual partners of his HIV status
• B. Counsel the client about the importance of notifying his sexual partner
• C. Inform the wife of her health risk related to her husband's HIV results
• D. Report the client's status as a sexually transmitted case to the health department

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should counsel the client on the importance of notifying partners about HIV status while respecting confidentiality. Mandatory partner notification laws vary by jurisdiction, so option A cannot be universally applied. Breaching patient confidentiality, as suggested in option C, is unethical. Reporting the client's status to the health department without consent, as in option D, is not appropriate as HIV status is confidential information and is not automatically reported as a sexually transmitted case.

3. After a motor vehicle collision, a client is admitted to the medical unit with acute adrenal insufficiency (Addisonian crisis). Which prescription should the nurse implement?

• A. Determine serum glucose levels
• B. Withhold potassium additives to IV fluids
• C. Give IV corticosteroid replacement
• D. Prepare to initiate IV vasopressors

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with acute adrenal insufficiency (Addisonian crisis) following a motor vehicle collision, the priority intervention is to administer IV corticosteroid replacement. This is crucial to manage the crisis by replacing the deficient cortisol. Determining serum glucose levels (Choice A) may be important but is not the immediate priority in this situation. Withholding potassium additives to IV fluids (Choice B) is not indicated and may exacerbate electrolyte imbalances. Initiating IV vasopressors (Choice D) is not the primary treatment for acute adrenal insufficiency and should be reserved for managing hypotension that is unresponsive to corticosteroid therapy.

4. A client morning assessment includes bounding peripheral pulses, weight gain of 2 pounds, pitting ankle edema, and moist crackles bilaterally. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this client’s plan of care?

• A. Restrict daily fluid intake to 1500 ml
• B. Weight the client every morning
• C. Maintain accurate intake and output
• D. Administer prescribed diuretic

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering a prescribed diuretic is the most important intervention in this scenario as the client is presenting signs of fluid overload and heart failure. Diuretics help reduce fluid retention in the body, alleviating symptoms like edema and crackles. Restricting fluid intake may be necessary in some cases, but in this acute situation, addressing the immediate fluid overload with a diuretic takes precedence. Weighing the client daily and maintaining accurate intake and output are important aspects of monitoring, but they do not directly address the urgent need to manage fluid overload.

5. A client with multiple sclerosis is experiencing scotomas (blind spots), which are limiting peripheral vision. What intervention should the nurse include in this client's plan of care?

• A. Encourage the use of corrective lenses during the day
• B. Practice visual exercises that focus on a still object
• C. Alternate an eye patch from eye every 2 hours
• D. Teach techniques for scanning the environment

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with multiple sclerosis experiencing scotomas and limited peripheral vision is to teach techniques for scanning the environment. This intervention helps the client compensate for vision loss by learning how to scan and explore their surroundings effectively. Encouraging the use of corrective lenses may not address the issue of scotomas, and visual exercises focusing on a still object may not enhance peripheral vision. Alternating an eye patch every 2 hours is not typically indicated for scotomas in multiple sclerosis, making it an incorrect choice.

Similar Questions