Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being discharged with home oxygen therapy. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will keep my oxygen tank upright at all times.
• B. I will not use petroleum jelly to keep my nose from drying out.
• C. I will not smoke or allow others to smoke around me.
• D. I will call my doctor if I have difficulty breathing.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Petroleum jelly is flammable and should not be used with oxygen therapy due to the risk of fire. The client should avoid using petroleum-based products around oxygen equipment. Choices A, C, and D are all appropriate statements for a client with COPD receiving home oxygen therapy. Keeping the oxygen tank upright ensures proper oxygen flow, avoiding smoking or exposure to smoke helps prevent respiratory aggravation, and knowing to seek medical help promptly for breathing difficulties is essential for managing COPD effectively.

2. When planning to insert a peripheral IV catheter for an older adult client, which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

• A. Insert the catheter at a 45° angle
• B. Place the client's arm in a dependent position
• C. Shave excess hair from the insertion site
• D. Initiate IV therapy in the veins of the hand

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Placing the client's arm in a dependent position is the correct action when inserting a peripheral IV catheter for an older adult client. This position helps veins dilate due to gravity, facilitating easier insertion of the IV catheter. Choice A is incorrect because catheters are typically inserted at a lower angle, around 10-30 degrees. Choice C is unnecessary unless excessive hair impedes the insertion process. Choice D is incorrect as veins in the hand are generally smaller and more prone to complications, making them less ideal for IV therapy in older adults.

3. A client asks a nurse about their Snellen eye test results. The client's visual acuity is 20/30. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. “Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.”
• B. “Your right eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your left eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”
• C. “Your eyes see at 30 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 20 feet.”
• D. “Your left eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your right eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.' In the Snellen eye test, a visual acuity of 20/30 means that the client sees at 20 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 30 feet. This indicates that the client's vision is slightly worse than average. Choice B is incorrect as it incorrectly describes the visual acuity of each eye individually, rather than the combined visual acuity. Choice C is incorrect as it misinterprets the meaning of the Snellen eye test results by reversing the values. Choice D is incorrect as it inaccurately describes the visual acuity of the client's eyes, attributing different visual acuities to each eye instead of a combined measurement as indicated by 20/30.

4. When evaluating a client's use of a cane, which action should the nurse identify as an indication of correct use?

• A. The client's stronger side holds the cane
• B. The top of the cane is parallel to the client's waist
• C. The client holds the cane on the stronger side of their body
• D. The client moves the cane 46 cm (18 in) forward

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct way to use a cane is to hold it on the stronger side of the body. This helps to provide support and maintain alignment. Option A is incorrect because the cane should be held on the stronger side, not the weaker side. Option B is incorrect as the top of the cane should be at the level of the greater trochanter, not the waist. Option D is incorrect because the client should move the weaker limb forward with the cane for stability.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a history of congestive heart failure. Which assessment finding would be most concerning?

• A. Shortness of breath on exertion
• B. Weight gain of 2 pounds in a week
• C. Orthopnea
• D. Crackles in the lungs

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Crackles in the lungs are concerning because they indicate pulmonary congestion, a serious complication of congestive heart failure. The presence of crackles suggests fluid accumulation in the lungs, requiring immediate attention to prevent respiratory distress and worsening heart failure. While shortness of breath on exertion, weight gain, and orthopnea are common signs and symptoms of heart failure, crackles specifically point to acute pulmonary edema or worsening congestion, making them the most concerning finding in this scenario.

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