Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being discharged with home oxygen therapy. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will keep my oxygen tank upright at all times.
• B. I will not use petroleum jelly to keep my nose from drying out.
• C. I will not smoke or allow others to smoke around me.
• D. I will call my doctor if I have difficulty breathing.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Petroleum jelly is flammable and should not be used with oxygen therapy due to the risk of fire. The client should avoid using petroleum-based products around oxygen equipment. Choices A, C, and D are all appropriate statements for a client with COPD receiving home oxygen therapy. Keeping the oxygen tank upright ensures proper oxygen flow, avoiding smoking or exposure to smoke helps prevent respiratory aggravation, and knowing to seek medical help promptly for breathing difficulties is essential for managing COPD effectively.

2. A client has a new prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Place the tablet under your tongue and let it dissolve completely.
• C. Swallow the tablet whole with a glass of water.
• D. Chew the tablet for faster relief.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed nitroglycerin sublingual tablets is to place the tablet under the tongue and let it dissolve completely. This route of administration allows for rapid absorption of the medication through the oral mucosa, providing quick relief for angina symptoms. Option A, taking the medication with food, is incorrect as nitroglycerin should be taken sublingually, not with food. Option C, swallowing the tablet whole with water, is incorrect as sublingual tablets should not be swallowed whole. Option D, chewing the tablet for faster relief, is also incorrect as chewing the tablet can lead to rapid absorption and potential adverse effects rather than a controlled release for angina relief.

3. When changing the client's dressing, which observation should the nurse report to the client's surgeon for a client recovering from an appendectomy for a ruptured appendix with a surgical wound healing by secondary intention?

• A. A halo of erythema on the surrounding skin
• B. Presence of serous drainage
• C. Edema around the wound
• D. Absence of granulation tissue

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A halo of erythema on the surrounding skin may indicate an infection or inflammation of the wound site, which is critical to report to the surgeon. Erythema, redness, and warmth are signs of inflammation that could potentially be a sign of an infected wound. Serous drainage is a common and expected finding in healing wounds, indicating a normal healing process. Edema around the wound might be expected due to the body's response to tissue injury. The absence of granulation tissue in a wound healing by secondary intention may not be an immediate concern as it forms during the later stages of wound healing.

4. When entering the room of an adult male, the nurse finds that the client is very anxious. Before providing care, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Divert the client’s attention
• B. Call for additional help from staff
• C. Document the planned action
• D. Re-assess the client's situation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Re-assessing the client's situation before providing care is the most appropriate action in this scenario. By re-evaluating the client, the nurse can better understand the cause of the anxiety and tailor the care accordingly. Diverting the client's attention (Choice A) may not address the underlying issue causing anxiety. Calling for additional help (Choice B) is not the initial step required unless there is an urgent need. Documenting the planned action (Choice C) should come after reassessing the client to ensure accuracy and relevance.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease is being assessed. Which laboratory value would be most concerning?

• A. Serum creatinine of 3.0 mg/dL
• B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 45 mg/dL
• C. Serum potassium of 6.5 mEq/L
• D. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease, an elevated serum potassium level (hyperkalemia) is the most concerning finding. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias due to its effect on the electrical conduction system of the heart. Monitoring and managing serum potassium levels are crucial in patients with chronic kidney disease to prevent serious complications. While elevated serum creatinine (Choice A) and Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) levels (Choice B) indicate impaired kidney function, hyperkalemia poses an immediate risk of cardiac complications. Hemoglobin levels (Choice D) are typically lower in chronic kidney disease due to decreased erythropoietin production, but they do not present an immediate life-threatening risk like hyperkalemia.

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