Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being discharged with home oxygen therapy. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will keep my oxygen tank upright at all times.
• B. I will not use petroleum jelly to keep my nose from drying out.
• C. I will not smoke or allow others to smoke around me.
• D. I will call my doctor if I have difficulty breathing.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Petroleum jelly is flammable and should not be used with oxygen therapy due to the risk of fire. The client should avoid using petroleum-based products around oxygen equipment. Choices A, C, and D are all appropriate statements for a client with COPD receiving home oxygen therapy. Keeping the oxygen tank upright ensures proper oxygen flow, avoiding smoking or exposure to smoke helps prevent respiratory aggravation, and knowing to seek medical help promptly for breathing difficulties is essential for managing COPD effectively.

2. The nurse is caring for an older adult patient with a diagnosis of urinary tract infection (UTI). Upon assessment, the nurse finds the patient confused and agitated. How will the nurse interpret these assessment findings?

• A. These are normal signs of aging.
• B. These are early signs of dementia.
• C. These are purely psychological in origin.
• D. These are common manifestations with UTIs.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should interpret confusion and agitation in an older adult patient with a UTI as common manifestations of the infection. In older patients, confusion is a primary symptom of a compromised state due to an acute urinary tract infection or fever. Choice A is incorrect as confusion and agitation are not normal signs of aging. Choice B is incorrect because these symptoms are more likely related to the UTI rather than early signs of dementia. Choice C is incorrect as confusion and agitation in this context are not purely psychological but are likely physiological responses to the UTI.

3. A client receiving chlorpromazine HCL (Thorazine) is in psychiatric home care. During a home visit, the nurse observes the client smacking her lips alternately with grinding her teeth. The nurse recognizes this assessment finding as what?

• A. Dystonia
• B. Akathisia
• C. Bradykinesia
• D. Tardive dyskinesia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tardive dyskinesia. Tardive dyskinesia is a potential side effect of long-term antipsychotic use, characterized by involuntary movements like lip smacking and repetitive, purposeless movements. Choice A, dystonia, presents with sustained or repetitive muscle contractions. Choice B, akathisia, involves motor restlessness and a compelling need to be in constant motion. Choice C, bradykinesia, refers to slowness of movement typically seen in Parkinson's disease, not lip smacking and teeth grinding, which are indicative of tardive dyskinesia.

4. A client is still experiencing mild back pain after receiving analgesia 1 hour ago. Which of the following nonpharmacological pain management techniques should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Encourage the client to apply a heating pad for 2 hours at a time
• B. Apply an ice pack to the client’s back for 1 hour
• C. Remove distractions from the client’s room
• D. Instruct the client to take deep, rhythmic breaths

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should instruct the client to take deep, rhythmic breaths as a nonpharmacological pain management technique. Deep, rhythmic breathing helps with relaxation and pain management, potentially reducing the perception of pain. Encouraging the client to apply a heating pad for 2 hours at a time (Choice A) is not recommended as prolonged heat application can lead to tissue damage and is not suitable for mild back pain. Applying an ice pack for 1 hour (Choice B) may not be appropriate for mild back pain as cold therapy is more commonly used for acute injuries. Removing distractions from the client’s room (Choice C) may help create a more calming environment, but it does not directly address the client's pain.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a patient's skin. Which patient is most at risk for impaired skin integrity?

• A. A patient who is afebrile
• B. A patient who is diaphoretic
• C. A patient with strong pedal pulses
• D. A patient with adequate skin turgor

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Excessive moisture on the skin, as seen in a diaphoretic patient, can lead to impaired skin integrity. Diaphoresis softens epidermal cells, promotes bacterial growth, and can cause skin maceration. Afebrile status, strong pedal pulses, and adequate skin turgor are not directly associated with an increased risk of impaired skin integrity. Afebrile indicates the absence of fever, not a risk to skin integrity. Strong pedal pulses suggest good circulation, which is beneficial for skin health. Adequate skin turgor is a sign of good hydration and skin elasticity, indicating a lower risk of impaired skin integrity.

Similar Questions