HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test for Fundamentals
1. A nurse is planning an education session for an older adult client who has just learned that she has type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following strategies should the nurse plan to use with this client?
- A. Allow extra time for the client to respond to questions
- B. Expect the client to have difficulty understanding the information
- C. Avoid references to the client’s past experiences
- D. Keep the learning session private and one-on-one
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Choice A, allowing extra time for the client to respond to questions, is the appropriate strategy when educating an older adult with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Older adults may need additional time to process information and formulate responses. Choice B is incorrect as it assumes the client will have difficulty understanding the information, which may not be the case. Choice C is incorrect because referencing the client's past experiences can help personalize the education session. Choice D is also incorrect as keeping the learning session private and one-on-one may not be necessary for all clients and may limit the potential benefits of group education and support.
2. The healthcare provider is educating a client about dietary changes to prevent the recurrence of calcium oxalate kidney stones. Which food should the provider advise the client to avoid?
- A. Spinach
- B. Bananas
- C. Chicken
- D. Rice
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Spinach. Spinach is high in oxalate, a compound that can contribute to the formation of calcium oxalate kidney stones. Therefore, advising the client to avoid spinach is crucial in reducing the risk of stone recurrence. Bananas (choice B) are not high in oxalate and do not directly contribute to the formation of calcium oxalate stones, so they do not need to be avoided. Similarly, choices C and D, chicken, and rice, are not typically associated with high oxalate content, making them safe choices and do not need to be avoided specifically to prevent calcium oxalate kidney stones.
3. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a history of hypertension. Which assessment finding would be most concerning?
- A. Blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg
- B. Irregular heart rate
- C. Shortness of breath
- D. Headache
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Shortness of breath in a client with a history of hypertension is a critical assessment finding as it may indicate heart failure, pulmonary edema, or other severe complications. The development of shortness of breath suggests that the client's condition may be rapidly deteriorating and requires immediate medical attention. Elevated blood pressure (150/90 mmHg) is concerning but not as acute as the potential complications associated with shortness of breath. An irregular heart rate and headache can also be symptoms of hypertension, but in this scenario, shortness of breath poses a higher risk of severe cardiovascular or respiratory issues.
4. A parent asks a nurse about his infant's expected physical development during the first year of life. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
- A. A 10-month-old infant can pull up to a standing position.
- B. A 6-month-old infant can walk with assistance.
- C. A 12-month-old infant can jump with both feet.
- D. An 8-month-old infant can crawl on hands and knees.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. By 10 months, infants can typically pull up to a standing position as part of their physical development. Walking with assistance usually begins around 9-12 months, not at 6 months (choice B). Jumping with both feet is a skill that usually develops around 24 months, not at 12 months (choice C). Crawling on hands and knees typically starts around 6-9 months, not at 8 months (choice D). Therefore, the most accurate information to include for an infant's expected physical development at 10 months is the ability to pull up to a standing position.
5. What are the correct steps used for abdominal assessment?
- A. Inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation
- B. Palpation, inspection, auscultation, percussion
- C. Percussion, palpation, inspection, auscultation
- D. Auscultation, palpation, percussion, inspection
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct order for abdominal assessment is inspection, auscultation, percussion, and palpation. Inspection allows the nurse to visually assess the abdomen for any abnormalities or distension. Auscultation follows to listen for bowel sounds and vascular sounds. Percussion helps to assess the density of underlying structures and detect any abnormal masses. Palpation is performed last to assess tenderness, organ size, and detect any masses. Choices B, C, and D have the steps in the incorrect order, making them the wrong choices.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access