Nursing Elites

1. When teaching the guardian of a 12-year-old male client about manifestations of puberty, which of the following physical changes typically occurs first?

• A. Appearance of downy hair on the upper lip
• B. Hair growth in the axillae
• C. Enlargement of the testes and scrotum
• D. Deepening of the voice

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During puberty in males, the first physical change that typically occurs is the enlargement of the testes and scrotum. This change is due to increased production of testosterone, which stimulates growth and development of the genital organs. The appearance of downy hair on the upper lip (Choice A) and hair growth in the axillae (Choice B) usually follow the enlargement of the testes and scrotum. Deepening of the voice (Choice D) is a later stage change that occurs during puberty as the larynx (voice box) grows and the vocal cords lengthen and thicken.

2. While caring for a client who is postoperative and has refused to use an incentive spirometer following major abdominal surgery, what is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Request that a respiratory therapist discuss the technique for using the incentive spirometer
• B. Determine the reasons why the client is refusing to use the incentive spirometer
• C. Document the client's refusal to participate in health restorative activities
• D. Administer a pain medication to the client

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse's priority is to determine the reasons why the client is refusing to use the incentive spirometer. By understanding the client's concerns or barriers, the nurse can address them appropriately. Requesting a respiratory therapist (Choice A) may be necessary later but is not the priority. Documenting the refusal (Choice C) is important but does not address the immediate need to assess and intervene. Administering pain medication (Choice D) without addressing the root cause of refusal is not appropriate and may mask the issue rather than resolve it.

3. A nurse questions a medication prescription as too extreme in light of the client’s advanced age and unstable status. The nurse understands that this action is an example of which of the following ethical principles?

• A. Fidelity
• B. Autonomy
• C. Justice
• D. Nonmaleficence

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Nonmaleficence. Nonmaleficence refers to the principle of 'do no harm.' In this scenario, questioning a potentially harmful prescription for a client with advanced age and unstable status aligns with the principle of nonmaleficence, as the nurse is advocating for the client's safety and well-being. Choice A, Fidelity, refers to being faithful and keeping promises, which is not directly related to the situation described. Choice B, Autonomy, pertains to respecting a patient's right to make their own decisions, which is not the focus of the nurse questioning the prescription. Choice C, Justice, involves fairness and equal treatment, which is not the primary ethical principle at play in this situation.

4. While a client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Monitor the client's blood glucose level every 4 hours.
• B. Change the TPN tubing every 72 hours.
• C. Weigh the client daily.
• D. Change the TPN bag every 24 hours.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action is to change the TPN bag every 24 hours to reduce the risk of infection. Changing the TPN tubing every 72 hours (Choice B) may increase the risk of contamination. Monitoring the client's blood glucose level every 4 hours (Choice A) is important but not specific to TPN administration. Weighing the client daily (Choice C) is essential for monitoring fluid status but is not directly related to TPN administration.

5. Which of the following should a group of community health nurses plan as part of a primary prevention program for occupational pulmonary diseases?

• A. Screening for early symptoms
• B. Providing treatment for diagnosed conditions
• C. Elimination of the exposure
• D. Increasing awareness of symptoms

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Elimination of the exposure.' Primary prevention programs for occupational pulmonary diseases aim to prevent the development of these diseases by eliminating or minimizing exposure to harmful substances in the workplace. Screening for early symptoms (Choice A) focuses on secondary prevention, detecting diseases at an early stage. Providing treatment for diagnosed conditions (Choice B) is part of tertiary prevention, managing and treating established diseases. Increasing awareness of symptoms (Choice D) may help in early detection but does not directly address the prevention of exposure, which is crucial for primary prevention of occupational pulmonary diseases.

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