HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Study Guide
1. When teaching the guardian of a 12-year-old male client about manifestations of puberty, which of the following physical changes typically occurs first?
- A. Appearance of downy hair on the upper lip
- B. Hair growth in the axillae
- C. Enlargement of the testes and scrotum
- D. Deepening of the voice
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During puberty in males, the first physical change that typically occurs is the enlargement of the testes and scrotum. This change is due to increased production of testosterone, which stimulates growth and development of the genital organs. The appearance of downy hair on the upper lip (Choice A) and hair growth in the axillae (Choice B) usually follow the enlargement of the testes and scrotum. Deepening of the voice (Choice D) is a later stage change that occurs during puberty as the larynx (voice box) grows and the vocal cords lengthen and thicken.
2. A client with a history of chronic renal failure is admitted with generalized edema. Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor to assess the client's fluid balance?
- A. Serum potassium
- B. Serum calcium
- C. Serum albumin
- D. Serum sodium
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Serum albumin. In clients with chronic renal failure and generalized edema, monitoring serum albumin levels is crucial as it is a key indicator of fluid balance. Low serum albumin levels can contribute to edema formation due to decreased oncotic pressure, indicating fluid imbalance. Serum potassium (Choice A) is more related to kidney function and electrolyte balance in renal failure patients. Serum calcium (Choice B) is important for bone health but is not directly related to fluid balance. Serum sodium (Choice D) is more indicative of hydration status and electrolyte balance but may not directly reflect fluid balance in the context of chronic renal failure and edema.
3. A client is having difficulty breathing while laying in bed with a nasal cannula delivering oxygen. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take first?
- A. Suction the client's airway
- B. Administer a bronchodilator
- C. Increase the humidity in the client's room
- D. Assist the client to an upright position
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to assist the client to an upright position. When a client is having difficulty breathing, promoting optimal oxygenation is essential. Elevating the head of the bed improves ventilation and lung expansion by reducing pressure on the diaphragm. This position allows the lungs to expand fully, enhancing oxygen exchange. Suctioning the airway may be necessary if there are secretions causing obstruction, but it is not the first intervention in this scenario. Administering a bronchodilator is appropriate for bronchoconstriction but does not address the immediate need for better ventilation. Increasing humidity can be beneficial in certain respiratory conditions, but it is not the initial priority when a client is struggling to breathe.
4. When evaluating a client's plan of care, the LPN determines that a desired outcome was not achieved. Which action will the LPN implement first?
- A. Establish a new nursing diagnosis.
- B. Note which actions were not implemented.
- C. Add additional nursing orders to the plan.
- D. Collaborate with the healthcare provider to make changes.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct first action for the LPN to take when a desired outcome is not achieved is to note which actions were not implemented. This step helps in identifying gaps in the plan of care and reasons for not achieving the desired outcome. Establishing a new nursing diagnosis (Choice A) is not the initial step when evaluating the plan of care. Adding additional nursing orders (Choice C) may not address the root cause of the unachieved outcome. Collaborating with the healthcare provider (Choice D) should come after identifying the gaps in the plan and reasons for the outcome not being met.
5. A client reports abdominal pain. An assessment by the nurse reveals a temperature of 39.2 degrees C (102 degrees F), heart rate of 105/min, a soft tender abdomen, and menses overdue by 2 days. Which of the following findings should be the nurse's priority?
- A. Temperature
- B. Heart rate
- C. Abdominal tenderness
- D. Overdue menses
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse's priority should be the client's temperature. A high temperature of 39.2 degrees C (102 degrees F) indicates a potential infection or inflammation that requires immediate attention. While heart rate and abdominal tenderness are important assessments, the temperature takes precedence as it signals a more urgent issue. Overdue menses, although significant, are not the priority in this scenario when compared to the possibility of an acute infection or inflammatory process.
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