HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam Test Bank
1. The nurse manager hears a healthcare provider loudly criticize one of the staff nurses within the hearing of others. The employee does not respond to the healthcare provider's complaints. The nurse manager's next action should be to
- A. Approach the healthcare provider and staff nurse for a private meeting to address the situation.
- B. Allow the staff nurse to handle this situation without interference.
- C. Notify other administrative personnel of a breach of professional conduct.
- D. Request an immediate private meeting with the healthcare provider and staff nurse.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse manager in this situation is to request an immediate private meeting with the healthcare provider and staff nurse. By doing so, the nurse manager can facilitate a more appropriate and professional discussion of the issues at hand in a private setting. Option A, which involves addressing the behavior quietly, may not effectively resolve the issue as it needs to be openly discussed. Option B is not advisable as the nurse manager should intervene to address the situation and provide support. Option C, notifying other administrative personnel, may escalate the situation unnecessarily before attempting to resolve it directly with the involved parties.
2. During an integumentary assessment for a group of clients, a healthcare professional notes various skin findings. Which of the following findings should the professional recognize as requiring immediate intervention?
- A. Pallor
- B. Cyanosis
- C. Jaundice
- D. Erythema
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Cyanosis, a bluish discoloration of the skin, indicates inadequate oxygenation and requires immediate intervention. It suggests a severe lack of oxygen in the blood, which can be life-threatening. Pallor and jaundice are concerning findings but may not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation. Pallor can be a sign of anemia or low blood pressure, while jaundice may indicate liver dysfunction. Erythema, which is redness of the skin, is typically not an emergency and can be caused by various factors such as inflammation or increased blood flow to the area.
3. A client is 1-day postoperative and reports a pain level of 10 on a scale of 0 to 10. After reviewing the client’s medication administration record, which of the following medications should be administered?
- A. Meperidine 75 mg IM
- B. Fentanyl 50 mcg/hr transdermal patch
- C. Morphine 2 mg IV
- D. Oxycodone 10 mg PO
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Morphine IV is the most appropriate choice for severe postoperative pain due to its rapid onset and effectiveness. Meperidine is not preferred due to its potential side effects, and fentanyl patches are typically used for chronic pain, not acute postoperative pain. Oxycodone taken orally is not ideal for providing immediate relief in this situation.
4. A nurse is assigned to a manipulative client for 5 days and becomes aware of feelings of reluctance to interact with the client. What should the nurse do next?
- A. Discuss the feelings of reluctance with an objective peer or supervisor
- B. Limit contacts with the client to avoid reinforcement of the manipulative behavior
- C. Confront the client about the negative effects of behaviors on other clients and staff
- D. Develop a behavior modification plan that will promote more functional behavior
Correct answer: A
Rationale: It is important for the nurse to address their feelings of reluctance when dealing with a manipulative client by discussing them with an objective peer or supervisor. This action can provide valuable insight and support for managing the nurse-client relationship. Choice B should be avoided as limiting contacts with the client may not address the underlying issues and could potentially harm the therapeutic relationship. Choice C is confrontational and may escalate the situation rather than resolve it. Choice D, while important, should come after addressing the nurse's feelings and seeking support.
5. The nurse is preparing to provide a complete bed bath to an unconscious patient. The nurse decides to use a bag bath. In which order will the nurse clean the body, starting with the first area?
- A. Neck, shoulders, and chest
- B. Abdomen and groin/perineum
- C. Legs, feet, and web spaces
- D. Back of neck, back, and then buttocks
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In providing a complete bed bath using a bag bath for an unconscious patient, the nurse should follow a specific order. The correct sequence is as follows: Neck, shoulders, and chest; Both arms, both hands, web spaces, and axilla; Abdomen and then groin/perineum; Right leg, right foot, and web spaces; Left leg, left foot, and web spaces; Back of neck, back, and then buttocks. Choice A is incorrect as it does not follow the correct sequence for a bed bath. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on the lower extremities before addressing the upper body. Choice D is incorrect as it starts with the back of the patient instead of the upper body areas first.
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