Nursing Elites

1. A client who has an indwelling catheter reports a need to urinate. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Check the catheter to see whether it is patent.
• B. Reassure the client that it is not possible for them to urinate.
• C. Re-catheterize the bladder with a larger-gauge catheter.
• D. Collect a urine specimen for analysis.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client with an indwelling catheter reports a need to urinate, the nurse's initial action should be to check the catheter for patency. This is crucial to ensure that the catheter is not blocked, twisted, or kinked, which could lead to urinary retention. Reassuring the client without assessing the catheter could delay necessary interventions. Re-catheterizing the bladder with a larger-gauge catheter should not be the first step unless catheter patency is confirmed as an issue. Collecting a urine specimen for analysis is important but not the immediate priority when the client reports a need to urinate.

2. A client has C-diff infection. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Give the client chlorhexidine gluconate for hand hygiene.
• B. Remove the protective gown first when exiting the client's room.
• C. Use alcohol-based hand rub when caring for the client.
• D. Initiate contact precautions when providing client care.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to initiate contact precautions when providing client care. C-diff (Clostridium difficile) is highly contagious, and contact precautions are necessary to prevent its spread. Giving the client chlorhexidine gluconate for hand hygiene (Choice A) is not specific to managing C-diff. Removing the protective gown first when exiting the client's room (Choice B) may increase the risk of contaminating oneself and the environment. Using alcohol-based hand rub when caring for the client (Choice C) is not sufficient to prevent the transmission of C-diff, as soap and water are more effective against this particular pathogen.

3. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is receiving a change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?

• A. A client who has new onset of dyspnea 24 hours after a total hip arthroplasty
• B. A client who has acute abdominal pain rated 4 on a scale from 0 to 10
• C. A client who has a UTI and low-grade fever
• D. A client who has pneumonia and an oxygen saturation of 96%

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should prioritize seeing the client who has new onset dyspnea 24 hours after a total hip arthroplasty first. This sudden dyspnea could indicate a serious complication like a pulmonary embolism, which requires immediate assessment and intervention. Acute abdominal pain, a UTI with a low-grade fever, and pneumonia with an oxygen saturation of 96% are important concerns but are not as immediately life-threatening as potential pulmonary embolism indicated by sudden dyspnea postoperatively.

4. A 25-year-old primigravida at 16 weeks gestation is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum. Which nursing diagnosis should have the highest priority?

• A. Fluid volume deficit
• B. Altered nutrition: less than body requirements
• C. Anxiety related to new situational crisis
• D. Activity intolerance related to fatigue

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a case of hyperemesis gravidarum, the priority nursing diagnosis should be addressing the Fluid volume deficit. This condition can lead to serious complications such as electrolyte imbalances and dehydration, which can endanger both the mother and the fetus if not managed promptly. Altered nutrition: less than body requirements is important but addressing the fluid volume deficit takes precedence as it poses an immediate threat. Anxiety related to new situational crisis and Activity intolerance related to fatigue are valid concerns, but they are secondary to the critical issue of fluid volume deficit in this scenario.

5. An elderly client who requires frequent monitoring fell and fractured a hip. Which LPN/LVN is at greatest risk for a malpractice judgment?

• A. A nurse who worked the 7 to 3 shift at the hospital and wrote poor nursing notes.
• B. The nurse assigned to care for the client who was at lunch at the time of the fall.
• C. The nurse who transferred the client to the chair when the fall occurred.
• D. The charge nurse who completed rounds 30 minutes before the fall occurred.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse who transferred the client to the chair when the fall occurred is directly involved in the event that led to the injury. Improper transfer techniques or lack of appropriate precautions during the transfer could have contributed to the fall and subsequent fracture of the hip. This direct involvement makes this nurse the one at greatest risk for a malpractice judgment. Choices A, B, and D are not as directly linked to the event that caused the injury. While poor nursing notes could be a factor, it is the immediate action of transferring the client that has a more direct impact on the client's fall and subsequent injury.

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