HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Final Exam
1. The nurse is with a client when the healthcare provider explains that the biopsy classifies the results as a T1N0M0 tumor. What response should the nurse provide first?
- A. The letters represent tumor size, node involvement, and metastasis in cancer staging.
- B. The letters stand for tumor size, node involvement, and metastasis.
- C. Let me explain the cancer staging to you.
- D. Would you like further clarification on the tumor staging?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer as it accurately explains that the letters T, N, and M in cancer staging represent tumor size, node involvement, and metastasis, respectively. Understanding this staging system helps the client comprehend the extent and severity of the disease. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A has the correct information but is not the most precise response. Choice C is vague and does not directly address the client's need for clarification. Choice D offers further clarification without directly addressing the initial explanation provided by the healthcare provider.
2. Which client is at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers?
- A. A 50-year-old client with a fractured femur
- B. A 30-year-old client with diabetes mellitus
- C. A 65-year-old client with limited mobility
- D. A 70-year-old client with a history of stroke
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Clients with limited mobility are at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers due to prolonged pressure on specific areas of the body. This constant pressure can lead to tissue damage and ultimately result in pressure ulcers. While age and medical conditions such as diabetes and a history of stroke can contribute to the risk of pressure ulcers, limited mobility is the most significant factor as it directly affects the ability to shift positions and relieve pressure on vulnerable areas of the body. Therefore, the 65-year-old client with limited mobility is at the highest risk compared to the other clients. The 50-year-old client with a fractured femur may have limited mobility due to the injury, but it is temporary and may not be as prolonged as chronic limited mobility. The 30-year-old client with diabetes mellitus and the 70-year-old client with a history of stroke are at risk for developing pressure ulcers, but their conditions do not directly impact their ability to shift positions and alleviate pressure like limited mobility does.
3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is struggling to breathe. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Increase the oxygen flow rate according to the prescription
- B. Encourage the client to perform pursed-lip breathing
- C. Prepare for emergency intubation
- D. Assess the client's oxygen saturation and breath sounds
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct first action for a nurse when a client with COPD is struggling to breathe is to assess the client's oxygen saturation and breath sounds. This initial assessment is crucial in determining the severity of the client's condition and the appropriate intervention. Increasing the oxygen flow rate without proper assessment can potentially be harmful, as COPD clients have a risk of retaining carbon dioxide. Encouraging pursed-lip breathing can be beneficial but should come after assessing the client's current status. Emergency intubation is a drastic measure and should only be considered after a comprehensive assessment indicates the need for it.
4. The nurse observes a client with new-onset tachycardia. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Check for the client's temperature
- B. Administer prescribed beta-blockers
- C. Assess for any chest pain or discomfort
- D. Monitor the client's blood pressure
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a client presents with new-onset tachycardia, the first action the nurse should take is to assess for any associated symptoms like chest pain or discomfort. This is important to differentiate the potential causes of tachycardia and guide appropriate interventions. Checking the client's temperature (Choice A) may be relevant in certain situations but is not the priority when tachycardia is observed. Administering prescribed beta-blockers (Choice B) should only be done after a comprehensive assessment and healthcare provider's orders. Monitoring the client's blood pressure (Choice D) is important, but assessing for chest pain or discomfort takes precedence in this scenario to rule out cardiac causes of tachycardia.
5. A client is admitted to the hospital with second and third degree burns to the face and neck. How should the nurse best position the client to maximize function of the neck and face and prevent contracture?
- A. The neck extended backward using a rolled towel behind the neck
- B. Prone position using pillows to support both arms outward from the torso
- C. Side-lying position using pillows to support the abdomen and back
- D. The neck forward using pillows under the head and sandbags on both sides
Correct answer: D
Rationale: After sustaining burns to the face and neck, positioning is crucial to maintain functional posture, reduce pain, and prevent contractures. Placing the neck forward using pillows under the head and sandbags on both sides is the best option in this scenario. This position helps prevent neck and facial contractures, allowing for optimal function and healing. Choices A, B, and C do not adequately address the specific needs of a client with burns to the face and neck. Choice A could potentially exacerbate neck contractures, Choice B focuses on arm support rather than neck and face positioning, and Choice C does not directly address the needs of the burned face and neck, making them less effective in preventing contractures in these critical areas.
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