the nurse is caring for a client who is 4 hours post operative from abdominal surgery the client is complaining of severe pain what is the nurses firs
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health 1 Exam 1

1. The nurse is caring for a client who is 4 hours post-operative from abdominal surgery. The client is complaining of severe pain. What is the nurse's first action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when a post-operative client complains of severe pain is to reassess the pain and its characteristics. Reassessment is crucial to understand the nature and intensity of the pain, which will guide the nurse in providing appropriate interventions. Administering pain medication may be necessary but should only be done after reassessment to ensure the right medication and dose are given. Notifying the surgeon may be required in certain situations, but reassessment of pain should precede this action. Encouraging relaxation techniques is not the priority when a client is experiencing severe pain post-operatively.

2. The healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client with chronic heart failure. Which dietary recommendation is most appropriate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate dietary recommendation for a client with chronic heart failure is to follow a low-sodium diet. This helps manage the condition by reducing fluid retention and the workload on the heart. High fluid intake can lead to fluid overload and exacerbate heart failure symptoms. While protein is important for overall health, a high-protein diet is not specifically indicated for chronic heart failure. Increasing sodium intake is contraindicated in heart failure as it can worsen fluid retention and increase the workload on the heart.

3. A client with a history of pulmonary embolism is on anticoagulant therapy. What should the nurse monitor regularly?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! Monitoring INR is essential in clients on anticoagulant therapy to ensure the blood's clotting time is within the therapeutic range, preventing further embolic events or excessive bleeding. Monitoring blood glucose levels (Choice B), blood pressure (Choice C), and temperature (Choice D) is important for various other conditions but is not directly related to anticoagulant therapy for a client with a history of pulmonary embolism.

4. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is prescribed omeprazole (Prilosec). What is the primary action of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reduces gastric acid production. Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that works by reducing gastric acid production, thereby helping to heal ulcers. While neutralizing stomach acid is associated with antacids, forming a protective barrier over ulcers is more characteristic of medications like sucralfate. The action described in choice D, increasing gastric mucus production, is not the primary mechanism of action of omeprazole in treating peptic ulcer disease.

5. During the assessment of a client who has suffered a stroke, what finding would indicate a complication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Difficulty swallowing (dysphagia) can indicate complications such as aspiration risk, which is common after a stroke due to impaired swallowing reflexes. It poses a serious threat to the client's respiratory system. Options B, C, and D are less likely to indicate immediate complications post-stroke. A slight headache is a common complaint and may not necessarily indicate a complication. High blood pressure is a known risk factor for strokes but may not be an immediate post-stroke complication unless it is severely elevated. Muscle weakness on one side is a common sign of stroke but may not directly indicate a new complication.

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