a postoperative client complains of sudden shortness of breath what should the nurse do first
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health 2 Final Exam

1. A postoperative client complains of sudden shortness of breath. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Assessing the client's lung sounds is the most appropriate initial action when a postoperative client complains of sudden shortness of breath. This step helps the nurse evaluate the respiratory status and detect abnormalities such as decreased breath sounds or crackles, which could indicate a serious condition like a pulmonary embolism. Administering oxygen (Choice A) may be necessary but should come after assessing the lung sounds to ensure the appropriate intervention. Calling the healthcare provider (Choice B) or preparing for a chest x-ray (Choice C) can be important subsequent actions based on the findings from the lung sound assessment, but they are not the first priority in this situation.

2. A client who has just been diagnosed with tuberculosis (TB) is being discharged home. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Take all prescribed medications as directed.' This instruction is the most important because adherence to the prescribed medication regimen is crucial in treating tuberculosis effectively and preventing the development of drug-resistant TB. While choice A is important for infection control, ensuring treatment adherence through proper medication intake takes precedence. Choice C is also essential for monitoring progress but is not as critical as ensuring medication compliance. Choice D is relevant for preventing transmission but is not as crucial as ensuring proper treatment by taking medications as directed.

3. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. Which potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Persistent cough. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor commonly associated with a persistent dry cough as a side effect. This cough is thought to result from increased bradykinin levels. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypokalemia is not a common side effect of lisinopril; in fact, it may lead to hyperkalemia. Hyperglycemia is not a typical side effect of lisinopril use. Tachycardia is also not a common side effect associated with ACE inhibitors like lisinopril.

4. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer an IM injection to an adult client. Which site is the preferred location for this injection?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The ventrogluteal site is the preferred site for IM injections in adults due to its muscle mass and low risk of nerve injury. The deltoid muscle, although commonly used for vaccines in adults due to easy accessibility, has a smaller muscle mass making it less ideal for IM injections. The vastus lateralis muscle is typically used in infants and young children, not in adults. The dorsogluteal site has a higher risk of injury to the sciatic nerve and is no longer recommended for IM injections in any age group.

5. The client has chronic renal failure. What dietary modification is most important for this client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Limiting potassium-rich foods is crucial in chronic renal failure to prevent hyperkalemia, which can lead to cardiac complications. Excessive protein intake can increase the workload on the kidneys and may result in the accumulation of uremic toxins. Increasing sodium intake is generally discouraged in chronic renal failure due to its association with hypertension and fluid retention. Encouraging dairy products may not be suitable for all clients with chronic renal failure, as they are a significant source of phosphorus, which needs to be limited in renal failure to prevent mineral imbalances.

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