Nursing Elites

1. The patient is being taught about flossing and oral hygiene. What instruction will the nurse include in the teaching session?

• A. Using waxed floss helps prevent bleeding
• B. Flossing removes plaque and tartar from the teeth
• C. Flossing at least 3 times a day is beneficial
• D. Applying toothpaste before flossing is harmful

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Flossing is essential for removing plaque and tartar between teeth, contributing to better oral hygiene. Choice A is not entirely accurate as waxed floss may not solely prevent bleeding. Flossing three times a day, as mentioned in choice C, can be excessive and unnecessary, while choice D is incorrect as applying toothpaste before flossing is not harmful but might not provide additional benefits.

2. When providing a bath, in which order will the nurse clean the body, beginning with the first area?

• A. Face
• B. Eyes
• C. Perineum
• D. Back and buttocks

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct sequence for giving a bath starts with cleaning the eyes, followed by the face, both arms, chest, hands/nails, abdomen, both legs, perineal hygiene, back, and finally the buttocks/anus. Therefore, the first area to be cleaned during a bath is the eyes. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as per the standard procedure for providing a bath.

3. A nurse has an order to remove sutures from a client. After retrieving the suture removal kit and applying sterile gloves, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?

• A. Clean sutures along the incision site.
• B. Remove sutures using sterile technique.
• C. Inspect the wound for signs of infection.
• D. Document the removal of sutures.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After applying sterile gloves, the nurse should proceed to remove the sutures using sterile technique. This step ensures the safe and effective removal of sutures without introducing infection. Choice A, cleaning sutures along the incision site, would not be the next step as the primary focus is on suture removal. Inspecting the wound for signs of infection (Choice C) is important but typically follows suture removal. Documenting the removal of sutures (Choice D) is essential but usually occurs after the procedure is completed.

4. A client is to have mafenide (Sulfamylon) cream applied to burned areas. For which serious side effect of mafenide therapy should the LPN/LVN monitor this client?

• A. Curling ulcer
• B. Renal shutdown
• C. Metabolic acidosis
• D. Hemolysis of red blood cells

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Metabolic acidosis is a serious side effect of mafenide therapy that should be closely monitored. Mafenide can lead to metabolic acidosis due to its inhibition of carbonic anhydrase, resulting in the accumulation of carbonic acid. Curling ulcer (Choice A) is a stress-related mucosal lesion that occurs in the duodenum, primarily due to severe burns, not directly related to mafenide therapy. Renal shutdown (Choice B) is not a common side effect of mafenide therapy. Hemolysis of red blood cells (Choice D) is not a recognized side effect of mafenide cream application.

5. A postoperative client has been diagnosed with paralytic ileus. When performing auscultation of the client’s abdomen, the nurse expects the bowel sounds to be:

• A. Absent
• B. Hyperactive
• C. Normal
• D. Hypoactive

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In paralytic ileus, bowel sounds are typically absent or significantly reduced due to decreased motility of the intestines. This absence of bowel sounds is a key characteristic used in diagnosing paralytic ileus. Hyperactive bowel sounds are not expected in this condition as there is a lack of normal peristalsis. Normal bowel sounds would not be present in paralytic ileus, and hypoactive bowel sounds, which indicate decreased bowel motility, are more commonly associated with conditions like postoperative ileus or constipation, rather than paralytic ileus.

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