Nursing Elites

1. The patient is being taught about flossing and oral hygiene. What instruction will the nurse include in the teaching session?

• A. Using waxed floss helps prevent bleeding
• B. Flossing removes plaque and tartar from the teeth
• C. Flossing at least 3 times a day is beneficial
• D. Applying toothpaste before flossing is harmful

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Flossing is essential for removing plaque and tartar between teeth, contributing to better oral hygiene. Choice A is not entirely accurate as waxed floss may not solely prevent bleeding. Flossing three times a day, as mentioned in choice C, can be excessive and unnecessary, while choice D is incorrect as applying toothpaste before flossing is not harmful but might not provide additional benefits.

2. A client is 48 hours postoperative following a small bowel resection. The client reports gas pains in the periumbilical area. The nurse should plan care based on which of the following factors contributing to this postoperative complication?

• A. Impaired peristalsis of the intestines
• B. Infection at the surgical site
• C. Fluid overload
• D. Inadequate pain management

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Gas pains in the periumbilical area postoperatively are often caused by impaired peristalsis and bowel function. Following abdominal surgery, it is common for peristalsis to be reduced due to surgical manipulation and anesthesia effects. This reduction in peristalsis can lead to the accumulation of gas in the intestines, resulting in gas pains. Infection at the surgical site (Choice B) would present with localized signs of infection such as redness, swelling, warmth, and drainage, rather than diffuse gas pains. Fluid overload (Choice C) would manifest with symptoms such as edema, increased blood pressure, and respiratory distress, not gas pains. Inadequate pain management (Choice D) may lead to increased discomfort, but it is not the primary cause of gas pains in the periumbilical area following a small bowel resection.

3. The nurse manager is reviewing medication documentation. Which of the following statements should the nurse plan to include in teaching?

• A. Use the complete name of the medication magnesium sulfate.
• B. Avoid abbreviating medication names to prevent errors.
• C. Use generic names only for medications.
• D. Document the dosage, route of administration, and complete medication name.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Use the complete name of the medication magnesium sulfate.' When documenting medications, it is crucial to use the complete name to avoid confusion and errors. Abbreviating medication names (choice B) can lead to misinterpretation and errors in medication administration. Using generic names only for medications (choice C) may not provide enough specificity, leading to potential medication errors. While documenting the dosage and route of administration is important, it is also vital to include the complete medication name (choice D) for accurate record-keeping and to ensure clarity in medication administration.

4. While auscultating a client's abdomen, a nurse hears a blowing sound over the aorta. The nurse should identify this sound as which of the following?

• A. Gallop
• B. Bruit
• C. Thrill
• D. Murmur

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bruit. A bruit is a blowing sound indicating turbulent blood flow, often heard over the aorta. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. A gallop is a cardiac sound resembling the sound of a galloping horse. A thrill is a vibration felt on palpation, and a murmur is a swooshing or whooshing sound heard during auscultation of the heart or blood vessels. In this scenario, the blowing sound over the aorta specifically indicates a bruit, which signifies turbulent blood flow and should be further assessed by the healthcare provider.

5. Which of the following should a group of community health nurses plan as part of a primary prevention program for occupational pulmonary diseases?

• A. Screening for early symptoms
• B. Providing treatment for diagnosed conditions
• C. Elimination of the exposure
• D. Increasing awareness of symptoms

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Elimination of the exposure.' Primary prevention programs for occupational pulmonary diseases aim to prevent the development of these diseases by eliminating or minimizing exposure to harmful substances in the workplace. Screening for early symptoms (Choice A) focuses on secondary prevention, detecting diseases at an early stage. Providing treatment for diagnosed conditions (Choice B) is part of tertiary prevention, managing and treating established diseases. Increasing awareness of symptoms (Choice D) may help in early detection but does not directly address the prevention of exposure, which is crucial for primary prevention of occupational pulmonary diseases.

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