the nurse is caring for a client who is receiving 24 hour total parenteral nutrition tpn via a central line at 54 mlhr when initially assessing the cl
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Fundamentals of Nursing HESI

1. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving 24-hour total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a central line at 54 ml/hr. When initially assessing the client, the nurse notes that the TPN solution has run out and the next TPN solution is not available. What immediate action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Infusing 10% dextrose and water at 54 ml/hr is the correct action to prevent hypoglycemia until the next TPN solution becomes available. This solution will help maintain the client's glucose levels. Infusing normal saline at a keep-vein-open rate (Choice A) is not appropriate for maintaining glucose levels and would not address the nutritional needs provided by TPN. Discontinuing the IV and flushing the port with heparin (Choice B) is unnecessary and not indicated in this situation as the client still needs fluid and nutrition. Obtaining a stat blood glucose level and notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) can be done later but is not the immediate action required when the TPN solution has run out.

2. A healthcare provider in an office is preparing to auscultate and percuss a client’s thorax as part of a comprehensive physical examination. Which of the following findings should the provider expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During a thoracic examination, normal findings should include resonance, which is the expected sound when percussing the thorax. Resonance indicates healthy lung tissue and air-filled spaces. Abnormal findings such as rhonchi and crackles suggest issues like lung congestion or inflammation. Tactile fremitus refers to vibrations felt on the chest wall during palpation and is not typically assessed during percussion and auscultation of the thorax.

3. The LPN/LVN is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving oxygen therapy. Which observation indicates that the client is experiencing oxygen toxicity?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Sore throat.' Oxygen toxicity can manifest with symptoms like a sore throat, cough, chest pain, difficulty breathing, and fatigue. However, a sore throat can be an early indicator of oxygen toxicity and should prompt immediate attention. Nasal congestion, cough, and fatigue are not specific indicators of oxygen toxicity but could be related to other factors in a client with COPD receiving oxygen therapy.

4. A nurse observes smoke coming from under the door of the staff lounge. Which of the following actions is the nurse's priority?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a fire emergency, the nurse's priority is to activate the fire alarm. This action alerts others to the emergency, initiates the evacuation process, and ensures everyone's safety. Extinguishing the fire can be dangerous and should be left to trained personnel. Moving clients who are nearby might delay the activation of the alarm and can put the nurse and clients at risk. Closing all open doors on the unit is important to contain the fire but should not take precedence over alerting others through the fire alarm system.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a patient's skin. Which patient is most at risk for impaired skin integrity?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Excessive moisture on the skin, as seen in a diaphoretic patient, can lead to impaired skin integrity. Diaphoresis softens epidermal cells, promotes bacterial growth, and can cause skin maceration. Afebrile status, strong pedal pulses, and adequate skin turgor are not directly associated with an increased risk of impaired skin integrity. Afebrile indicates the absence of fever, not a risk to skin integrity. Strong pedal pulses suggest good circulation, which is beneficial for skin health. Adequate skin turgor is a sign of good hydration and skin elasticity, indicating a lower risk of impaired skin integrity.

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