Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving 24-hour total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a central line at 54 ml/hr. When initially assessing the client, the nurse notes that the TPN solution has run out and the next TPN solution is not available. What immediate action should the nurse take?

• A. Infuse normal saline at a keep-vein-open rate.
• B. Discontinue the IV and flush the port with heparin.
• C. Infuse 10% dextrose and water at 54 ml/hr.
• D. Obtain a stat blood glucose level and notify the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Infusing 10% dextrose and water at 54 ml/hr is the correct action to prevent hypoglycemia until the next TPN solution becomes available. This solution will help maintain the client's glucose levels. Infusing normal saline at a keep-vein-open rate (Choice A) is not appropriate for maintaining glucose levels and would not address the nutritional needs provided by TPN. Discontinuing the IV and flushing the port with heparin (Choice B) is unnecessary and not indicated in this situation as the client still needs fluid and nutrition. Obtaining a stat blood glucose level and notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) can be done later but is not the immediate action required when the TPN solution has run out.

2. A 16-year-old enters the emergency department. The triage nurse identifies that this teenager is legally married and signs the consent form for treatment. What would be the appropriate action by the nurse?

• A. Ask the teenager to wait until a parent or legal guardian can be contacted
• B. Withhold treatment until telephone consent can be obtained from the partner
• C. Refer the teenager to a community pediatric hospital emergency department
• D. Proceed with the triage process in the same manner as any adult client

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to proceed with the triage process in the same manner as any adult client. In this scenario, since the teenager is legally married, they have the legal authority to consent to their own treatment. Choice A is incorrect because the teenager, being legally married, can provide their own consent. Choice B is incorrect as it unnecessarily delays treatment by waiting for telephone consent from the partner, which is not required in this case. Choice C is incorrect as the teenager can receive appropriate care in the current emergency department setting without the need for referral.

3. When caring for a client with diarrhea due to shigellosis, what precautions should the nurse implement?

• A. Wear a gown when caring for the client.
• B. Wear gloves only.
• C. Use standard precautions only.
• D. Wear a mask and face shield.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to wear a gown when caring for the client. Shigellosis is highly contagious, and contact precautions are essential to prevent the spread of infection. Wearing gloves alone may not provide adequate protection as the client's diarrhea can contain infectious pathogens that can easily spread. Standard precautions include hand hygiene, but specific precautions for shigellosis require wearing a gown to protect against contact with infectious material. Wearing a mask and face shield are not necessary for shigellosis, as the primary mode of transmission is through the fecal-oral route, and these precautions are not indicated for this type of transmission.

4. Which client statement from the assessment data is likely to explain their noncompliance with propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal)?

• A. I have problems with diarrhea.
• B. I have difficulty falling asleep.
• C. I have diminished sexual function.
• D. I often feel jittery.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal) is known to cause side effects such as diminished sexual function, which can lead to noncompliance with the medication due to its impact on quality of life. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to be associated with propranolol hydrochloride. While diarrhea, difficulty falling asleep, and feeling jittery are possible side effects of propranolol, they are not as commonly reported as diminished sexual function. Therefore, choice C is the most likely reason for the client's noncompliance.

5. What is the most important action for the LPN/LVN to take to prevent infection in a client with an indwelling urinary catheter?

• A. Ensure the catheter tubing is free of kinks.
• B. Change the catheter every 72 hours.
• C. Clean the perineal area with an antiseptic solution daily.
• D. Irrigate the catheter with normal saline every shift.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most crucial action to prevent infection in a client with an indwelling urinary catheter is to ensure the catheter tubing is free of kinks. This step helps prevent obstruction in the tubing, maintaining proper urine flow and reducing the risk of infection. Changing the catheter every 72 hours is not recommended unless clinically indicated, as routine changes can increase the risk of introducing pathogens. Cleaning the perineal area with an antiseptic solution is essential for general hygiene but does not directly prevent catheter-related infections. Irrigating the catheter with normal saline every shift is not a standard practice and can introduce microorganisms into the urinary tract, increasing the risk of infection.

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