Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving 24-hour total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a central line at 54 ml/hr. When initially assessing the client, the nurse notes that the TPN solution has run out and the next TPN solution is not available. What immediate action should the nurse take?

• A. Infuse normal saline at a keep-vein-open rate.
• B. Discontinue the IV and flush the port with heparin.
• C. Infuse 10% dextrose and water at 54 ml/hr.
• D. Obtain a stat blood glucose level and notify the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Infusing 10% dextrose and water at 54 ml/hr is the correct action to prevent hypoglycemia until the next TPN solution becomes available. This solution will help maintain the client's glucose levels. Infusing normal saline at a keep-vein-open rate (Choice A) is not appropriate for maintaining glucose levels and would not address the nutritional needs provided by TPN. Discontinuing the IV and flushing the port with heparin (Choice B) is unnecessary and not indicated in this situation as the client still needs fluid and nutrition. Obtaining a stat blood glucose level and notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) can be done later but is not the immediate action required when the TPN solution has run out.

2. The nurse is caring for a 4-year-old 2 hours after tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy. Which of the following assessments must be reported immediately?

• A. Vomiting of dark emesis
• B. Complaints of throat pain
• C. Apical heart rate of 110
• D. Increased restlessness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Increased restlessness must be reported immediately as it may indicate bleeding or other complications post-tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy. This could be a sign of a developing issue that requires urgent intervention. Vomiting of dark emesis, complaints of throat pain, and an apical heart rate of 110 are important to monitor but do not indicate an immediate need for reporting as compared to the potential seriousness of increased restlessness in this scenario.

3. A client is being treated for pneumonia and is receiving intravenous antibiotics. The nurse notes that the client has developed a rash and is complaining of itching. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial nursing action?

• A. Administer diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
• B. Discontinue the antibiotic infusion
• C. Apply a cool compress to the rash
• D. Notify the healthcare provider

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate initial nursing action when a client develops a rash and itching while receiving intravenous antibiotics is to discontinue the antibiotic infusion. This is crucial to prevent further allergic reactions. Administering diphenhydramine (Benadryl) (Choice A) can be considered after discontinuing the antibiotic infusion. Applying a cool compress to the rash (Choice C) may provide symptomatic relief but does not address the underlying cause. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) is important but should come after discontinuing the antibiotic infusion to ensure the client's safety.

4. What are the correct steps used for abdominal assessment?

• A. Inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation
• B. Palpation, inspection, auscultation, percussion
• C. Percussion, palpation, inspection, auscultation
• D. Auscultation, palpation, percussion, inspection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct order for abdominal assessment is inspection, auscultation, percussion, and palpation. Inspection allows the nurse to visually assess the abdomen for any abnormalities or distension. Auscultation follows to listen for bowel sounds and vascular sounds. Percussion helps to assess the density of underlying structures and detect any abnormal masses. Palpation is performed last to assess tenderness, organ size, and detect any masses. Choices B, C, and D have the steps in the incorrect order, making them the wrong choices.

5. A client has been admitted to the hospital with severe diarrhea. The nurse should monitor the client for which complication?

• A. Metabolic acidosis
• B. Metabolic alkalosis
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Severe diarrhea can lead to metabolic acidosis due to the loss of bicarbonate. When there is excessive loss of bicarbonate through diarrhea, the pH of the blood decreases, leading to metabolic acidosis. Metabolic alkalosis (Choice B) is not typically associated with severe diarrhea as it involves elevated pH and bicarbonate levels. Hyperkalemia (Choice C) is less likely with severe diarrhea as potassium is often lost along with fluids. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not a common complication of severe diarrhea; instead, hypocalcemia may occur due to malabsorption of calcium.

Similar Questions