while suctioning a clients nasopharynx the nurse observes that the clients oxygen saturation remains at 94 which is the same reading obtained prior to
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Fundamentals Practice Test

1. While suctioning a client’s nasopharynx, the nurse observes that the client’s oxygen saturation remains at 94%, which is the same reading obtained prior to starting the procedure. What action should the nurse take in response to this finding?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A stable oxygen saturation reading of 94% indicates that the nurse can continue with the suctioning procedure. It is within an acceptable range, and there is no immediate need to interrupt the procedure. Continuing with the suctioning will help maintain airway patency and promote adequate oxygenation. Choice B is incorrect because repositioning the pulse oximeter clip is unnecessary when the reading is stable. Choice C is incorrect as there is no evidence to support stopping the suctioning procedure solely based on the oxygen saturation reading of 94%. Choice D is not the best action at this point, as applying an oxygen mask is not indicated when the oxygen saturation is stable and within an acceptable range.

2. What instruction should be provided for a UAP caring for a client with MRSA who has an order for contact precautions?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for a UAP caring for a client with MRSA under contact precautions is to don a gown and gloves when entering the client's room. This precaution is essential to prevent the spread of MRSA and protect both the client and the healthcare worker from potential infection. Choice A is incorrect because visitors should not be restricted solely based on contact precautions. Choice B is incorrect as wearing sterile gloves is not necessary, standard precautions with regular gloves are sufficient. Choice C is incorrect because the client wearing a mask is not a standard practice for contact precautions; it is the healthcare worker who should take preventive measures.

3. What assessment finding places a client at risk for problems associated with impaired skin integrity?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A capillary refill time greater than 3 seconds indicates poor perfusion, leading to impaired skin integrity. Delayed capillary refill can compromise blood flow to the skin, increasing the risk of pressure ulcers or wounds due to reduced tissue perfusion. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because scattered macules on the face, smooth nail texture, and presence of skin tenting are not direct indicators of impaired skin integrity or risk for skin problems.

4. While suctioning a tracheostomy tube, the client starts to cough. What is the best action for the nurse to take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client coughs during tracheostomy tube suctioning, the nurse should gently withdraw the suction tubing. This action allows the client to cough out mucus naturally, reducing the risk of further irritation and promoting effective airway clearance. Choice A is incorrect because suctioning deeper can cause trauma and increase the risk of complications. Choice C is incorrect as removing the suction quickly may not allow the client to clear the mucus adequately. Choice D is incorrect as inserting and removing the suction multiple times can lead to unnecessary trauma and discomfort for the client.

5. The healthcare professional counts an adult's apical heartbeat at 110 beats per minute. The healthcare professional describes this as:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tachycardia is a heart rate greater than 100 beats per minute. In this case, an adult's heart rate of 110 beats per minute falls within the range of tachycardia. Tachycardia can be a common physiological response to various stresses on the body, leading to an increased heart rate. Asystole refers to the absence of cardiac activity, bigeminy is a specific heart rhythm pattern, and bradycardia is a heart rate below 60 beats per minute in adults.

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