Nursing Elites

1. The client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is receiving dietary modification education from the nurse. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid eating large meals before bedtime.
• B. I will limit coffee consumption to the morning hours.
• C. I will elevate the head of my bed while sleeping.
• D. I will avoid spicy and acidic foods.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with GERD should avoid coffee as it can relax the lower esophageal sphincter and exacerbate symptoms. Limiting coffee consumption to the morning hours may not be sufficient, as coffee can still contribute to GERD symptoms throughout the day. Choices A, C, and D are all appropriate strategies for managing GERD symptoms. Avoiding large meals before bedtime, elevating the head of the bed while sleeping, and steering clear of spicy and acidic foods are all recommended practices to help alleviate GERD symptoms. Therefore, the client's statement in option B indicates a need for further teaching to completely address dietary modifications for managing GERD.

2. The healthcare provider is assessing a 17-month-old with acetaminophen poisoning. Which lab reports should the provider review first?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• B. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts
• C. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels
• D. Liver enzymes (AST and ALT)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In acetaminophen poisoning, liver damage is a significant concern due to the potential for hepatotoxicity. Therefore, the healthcare provider should first review liver enzymes such as AST (aspartate aminotransferase) and ALT (alanine aminotransferase) to assess liver function. Prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time are coagulation studies and are not the priority in acetaminophen poisoning. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts are important in assessing for anemia or infection but are not specific to acetaminophen poisoning. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels primarily assess kidney function, which is not the primary concern in acetaminophen poisoning.

3. The client is post-operative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following assessment findings would require immediate intervention?

• A. Absent bowel sounds
• B. Saturated abdominal dressing
• C. Pain level of 8/10
• D. Temperature of 100.4°F

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A saturated abdominal dressing is a critical finding that may indicate active bleeding or wound complications. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent further complications, such as hypovolemic shock or infection. Absent bowel sounds, though abnormal, are a common post-operative finding and do not require immediate intervention. Pain level of 8/10 can be managed effectively with appropriate pain control measures and does not indicate an urgent issue. A temperature of 100.4°F is slightly elevated but may be a normal post-operative response to surgery and does not typically require immediate intervention unless accompanied by other concerning signs or symptoms.

4. During the stages of dying, a client reaches the point of acceptance. What response should the LPN/LVN expect the client to exhibit?

• A. Apathy
• B. Euphoria
• C. Detachment
• D. Emotionalism

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During the stages of dying, when a client reaches the point of acceptance, the expected response is 'Detachment.' This is characterized by the individual withdrawing emotionally and psychologically from their surroundings as they come to terms with their impending death. Apathy (Choice A) refers to a lack of interest, enthusiasm, or concern, which is not typically associated with the acceptance stage. Euphoria (Choice B) is an intense feeling of happiness or excitement, which is less likely during the acceptance stage of dying. Emotionalism (Choice D) involves exaggerated or uncontrollable emotional reactions, which are not commonly seen during the acceptance phase.

5. When preparing for a change of shift, which document or tools should a healthcare provider use to communicate?

• A. SBAR
• B. SOAP
• C. PIE
• D. DAR

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation) is a structured method for communicating information during shift changes. SBAR provides a clear and concise way for healthcare providers to communicate important details about a patient's condition, ensuring that essential information is effectively transferred between providers. Choice B, SOAP (Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan), is a method primarily used for documentation in patient charts, not for shift change communication. Choice C, PIE (Problem, Intervention, Evaluation), is a nursing process format for organizing nursing care that focuses on individualized patient care plans, not shift handoff communication. Choice D, DAR (Data, Action, Response), is not a standard format for provider-to-provider handoff communication and is less commonly used in healthcare settings compared to SBAR.

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