HESI LPN
Practice HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. The client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is receiving dietary modification education from the nurse. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will avoid eating large meals before bedtime.
- B. I will limit coffee consumption to the morning hours.
- C. I will elevate the head of my bed while sleeping.
- D. I will avoid spicy and acidic foods.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with GERD should avoid coffee as it can relax the lower esophageal sphincter and exacerbate symptoms. Limiting coffee consumption to the morning hours may not be sufficient, as coffee can still contribute to GERD symptoms throughout the day. Choices A, C, and D are all appropriate strategies for managing GERD symptoms. Avoiding large meals before bedtime, elevating the head of the bed while sleeping, and steering clear of spicy and acidic foods are all recommended practices to help alleviate GERD symptoms. Therefore, the client's statement in option B indicates a need for further teaching to completely address dietary modifications for managing GERD.
2. What intervention should be implemented by the LPN to reduce the risk of aspiration in a client with a nasogastric tube receiving continuous enteral feedings?
- A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees.
- B. Check residual volumes every 4 hours.
- C. Verify tube placement every shift.
- D. Flush the tube with water every 4 hours.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees is crucial in reducing the risk of aspiration because it helps keep the gastric contents lower than the esophagus, thereby promoting proper digestion and preventing reflux. This position also aids in reducing the likelihood of regurgitation and aspiration of gastric contents. Checking residual volumes every 4 hours is important for monitoring feeding tolerance but does not directly address the risk of aspiration. Verifying tube placement every shift is essential for ensuring the tube is correctly positioned within the gastrointestinal tract but does not directly reduce the risk of aspiration. Flushing the tube with water every 4 hours may help maintain tube patency and prevent clogging, but it does not specifically address the risk of aspiration associated with nasogastric tube feedings.
3. The nurse is assessing a client who has just been admitted with a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. Which finding is most important for the LPN/LVN to report to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Elevated serum lipase level
- B. Severe abdominal pain
- C. Nausea and vomiting
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Hypotension is a critical finding that should be reported immediately in a client with acute pancreatitis as it may indicate severe complications such as hemorrhage or shock. While elevated serum lipase level, severe abdominal pain, and nausea/vomiting are common manifestations of acute pancreatitis, hypotension is a more urgent sign requiring immediate attention to prevent further deterioration. Hypotension can be a sign of significant fluid loss, hemorrhage, or sepsis, which are potentially life-threatening conditions that need prompt intervention. Elevated serum lipase levels, severe abdominal pain, and nausea/vomiting are important in the assessment of pancreatitis but do not indicate the same level of immediate danger as hypotension does.
4. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has pharyngeal diphtheria. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the healthcare professional initiate?
- A. Contact
- B. Droplet
- C. Airborne
- D. Protective
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Droplet. Droplet precautions are required for infections that spread via droplets larger than 5 microns in diameter, such as pharyngeal diphtheria. Contact precautions are used for diseases that spread by direct or indirect contact. Airborne precautions are for diseases that spread through small particles in the air. Protective precautions are not a standard precautionary measure for specific infections like pharyngeal diphtheria.
5. The client is receiving continuous bladder irrigation following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which finding indicates that the bladder irrigation is effective?
- A. The client reports minimal pain and discomfort.
- B. The urine appears clear and free of clots.
- C. The client has no signs of infection.
- D. The client is able to void independently.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The presence of clear urine free of clots is an indicator that the bladder irrigation is effective. This finding suggests that the irrigation is preventing clot formation and ensuring proper drainage, which is crucial after a TURP procedure. The client reporting minimal pain and discomfort (choice A) may be a positive sign but does not directly reflect the effectiveness of the bladder irrigation. The absence of infection signs (choice C) is important but not specific to evaluating the bladder irrigation. The client being able to void independently (choice D) is a good sign overall but does not specifically indicate the effectiveness of the bladder irrigation.
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