Nursing Elites

1. A nurse has an order to remove sutures from a client. After retrieving the suture remover kit and applying sterile gloves, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?

• A. Clean sutures along the incision site.
• B. Grasp the knot of the sutures with forceps.
• C. Cut the sutures close to the skin on one side.
• D. Pull out the sutures with forceps in one piece.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next after preparing the suture remover kit and applying sterile gloves is to clean sutures along the incision site. This step is crucial in preventing infection, which is the greatest risk to the client during suture removal. Cleaning the site helps minimize the risk of introducing microorganisms into the incision, reducing the chances of infection. Grasping at the knot of the sutures with forceps (Choice B) is incorrect as it does not address the need to clean the incision. Cutting the sutures close to the skin on one side (Choice C) or pulling out the sutures with forceps in one piece (Choice D) without proper cleaning can increase the risk of infection and should not be the next step in the process of suture removal.

2. An 18-year-old client is admitted to the intensive care unit from the emergency room following a diving accident. The injury is suspected to be at the level of the 2nd cervical vertebra. The nurse's priority assessment should be

• A. Response to stimuli
• B. Bladder control
• C. Respiratory function
• D. Muscle strength

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Injuries at the level of the 2nd cervical vertebra can affect the phrenic nerve, leading to potential impairment of respiratory function. Assessing respiratory function is crucial as compromised breathing can quickly escalate to life-threatening situations. While response to stimuli is important, ensuring adequate oxygenation takes precedence due to the immediate threat to life. Bladder control may be affected by spinal cord injuries at higher levels, but it is not the priority in this scenario. Muscle strength is a potential consequence of cervical spinal cord injury, but assessing respiratory function is more critical in the acute phase.

3. The client with congestive heart failure (CHF) is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory value should the healthcare provider monitor closely?

• A. Potassium
• B. Sodium
• C. Calcium
• D. Magnesium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! When a client is taking furosemide (Lasix), monitoring potassium levels is crucial due to the potential for hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss through increased urine output. Low potassium levels can predispose the client to cardiac dysrhythmias. Sodium, calcium, and magnesium levels are not typically affected by furosemide to the same extent as potassium, making them less critical to monitor in this scenario.

4. A home health nurse who has attended a training session for the therapeutic use of aromatherapy with essential oils is planning to use this modality with some of her clients. For which of the following clients should the nurse consult the provider before using this complementary therapy?

• A. A client who has asthma.
• B. A client who has diabetes.
• C. A client who has hypertension.
• D. A client who has a history of depression.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: a client who has asthma. Essential oils have the potential to trigger asthma symptoms due to their strong scents and chemical components. Consulting with the healthcare provider is crucial before using aromatherapy with essential oils to ensure the safety and well-being of the client with asthma. Choices B, C, and D do not pose immediate risks with aromatherapy use, making them less of a priority for consultation compared to asthma. Clients with diabetes, hypertension, or depression do not have the same immediate risks associated with the use of aromatherapy as clients with asthma. However, it is still advisable for the nurse to be aware of any potential interactions or contraindications with these conditions and consult with the provider if needed.

5. A client with a diagnosis of Guillain-Barre syndrome is in a non-responsive state, yet vital signs are stable and breathing is independent. What should the nurse document to most accurately describe the client's condition?

• A. Comatose, breathing unlabored
• B. Glasgow Coma Scale 8, respirations regular
• C. Appears to be sleeping, vital signs stable
• D. Glasgow Coma Scale 13, no ventilator required

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A Glasgow Coma Scale of 8 with regular respirations accurately describes a non-responsive state with independent breathing. Choice A is incorrect because 'comatose' implies a deeper state of unconsciousness than what is described in the scenario. Choice C is inaccurate as the client is not merely sleeping but non-responsive. Choice D is incorrect as a Glasgow Coma Scale of 13 indicates a higher level of consciousness than what is presented in the scenario.

Similar Questions