Nursing Elites

1. A nurse has an order to remove sutures from a client. After retrieving the suture remover kit and applying sterile gloves, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?

• A. Clean sutures along the incision site.
• B. Grasp the knot of the sutures with forceps.
• C. Cut the sutures close to the skin on one side.
• D. Pull out the sutures with forceps in one piece.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next after preparing the suture remover kit and applying sterile gloves is to clean sutures along the incision site. This step is crucial in preventing infection, which is the greatest risk to the client during suture removal. Cleaning the site helps minimize the risk of introducing microorganisms into the incision, reducing the chances of infection. Grasping at the knot of the sutures with forceps (Choice B) is incorrect as it does not address the need to clean the incision. Cutting the sutures close to the skin on one side (Choice C) or pulling out the sutures with forceps in one piece (Choice D) without proper cleaning can increase the risk of infection and should not be the next step in the process of suture removal.

2. A client in a provider’s office tells the nurse that, 'I fast for several days each week to help control my weight.' The client takes several medications for various chronic issues. The nurse should explain to the client that which of the following mechanisms that result from fasting puts her at risk for medication toxicity?

• A. Increasing the metabolism of the medications over time
• B. Increasing the protein-binding response
• C. Increasing medications’ transit time through the intestines
• D. Decreasing the excretion of medications

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Fasting can lead to an increased protein-binding response of medications. This can result in a higher concentration of bound medications in the bloodstream, potentially causing toxicity as the medications may not be readily available for metabolism or excretion. Choice A is incorrect because fasting typically doesn't increase medication metabolism. Choice C is incorrect as fasting usually decreases transit time through the intestines. Choice D is incorrect since fasting generally does not decrease medication excretion.

3. The nurse is caring for a client who was successfully resuscitated from a pulseless dysrhythmia. Which of the following assessments is MOST critical for the nurse to include in the plan of care?

• A. Hourly urine output
• B. White blood cell count
• C. Blood glucose every 4 hours
• D. Temperature every 2 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring hourly urine output is crucial after successful resuscitation from a pulseless dysrhythmia to assess kidney function and perfusion. The kidneys are particularly vulnerable to injury following cardiac events due to decreased perfusion during the event. Evaluating urine output hourly allows for early detection of renal impairment or inadequate organ perfusion. Option B, monitoring white blood cell count, is not a priority in this situation as it does not directly relate to immediate post-resuscitation care. Option C, checking blood glucose every 4 hours, is important but not as critical as assessing kidney function and perfusion. Option D, measuring temperature every 2 hours, is relevant for monitoring signs of infection or inflammatory response but is not as crucial as assessing kidney function in this scenario.

4. A group of newly licensed nurses is being taught about the Braden Scale by a nurse. Which of the following responses by a newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. “The client’s age is not a factor in the measurement.”
• B. “The scale measures six elements.”
• C. “A lower score indicates a higher risk of pressure ulcers.”
• D. “Each element is scored on a range from 1 to 4 points.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer because the Braden Scale measures six elements: Sensory Perception, Moisture, Activity, Mobility, Nutrition, Friction, and Shear. The other choices are incorrect because: Choice A states that the client's age is not a factor in the measurement, which is accurate as age is not included in the Braden Scale. Choice C incorrectly states that a lower score indicates a higher risk of pressure ulcers, which is the opposite of how the Braden Scale works. Choice D inaccurately describes the scoring range of each element on the Braden Scale, which is not from 1 to 4 points but rather from 1 to 3.

5. How can self-injury be prevented when lifting a bedside cabinet?

• A. Standing close to the cabinet when lifting.
• B. Bending at the waist when lifting.
• C. Twisting while lifting to balance the load.
• D. Lifting with a quick motion.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct way to prevent self-injury when lifting a bedside cabinet is by standing close to the cabinet. By standing close, the individual can maintain better control and balance while lifting, reducing the risk of injury. Bending at the waist when lifting (choice B) can strain the back and lead to injury. Twisting while lifting (choice C) can also cause strain and imbalance. Lifting with a quick motion (choice D) can increase the risk of injury due to lack of control and improper body mechanics.

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