HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. A home health nurse is planning to provide health promotion activities for a group of clients in the community. Which of the following activities is an example of the nurse promoting primary prevention?
- A. Educating clients about the recommended immunization schedule for adults
- B. Teaching clients how to manage chronic illnesses
- C. Providing counseling for depression
- D. Offering support groups for cancer survivors
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Educating clients about the recommended immunization schedule for adults. This activity falls under primary prevention, which aims to prevent the onset of illness or injury. Immunizations are a proactive measure to protect individuals from developing certain diseases. Choices B, C, and D involve managing chronic illnesses, providing counseling for mental health issues, and offering support for individuals who have already experienced cancer, respectively. These activities are more aligned with secondary or tertiary prevention, focusing on managing existing conditions or preventing complications in those already affected.
2. A nurse in a provider's office is assessing the deep tendon reflexes of a client. Which of the following techniques should the nurse identify as indicating the correct method for eliciting the client's patellar reflex?
- A. Tap just below the knee
- B. Tap on the upper thigh
- C. Tap on the ankle
- D. Tap on the lower leg
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct technique for eliciting the client's patellar reflex is to tap just below the knee. This action stimulates the stretch receptors in the patellar tendon, leading to a reflex contraction of the quadriceps muscle and extension of the lower leg. Tapping on the upper thigh (Choice B) would not elicit the patellar reflex as it targets a different area. Similarly, tapping on the ankle (Choice C) or tapping on the lower leg (Choice D) would not produce the desired response associated with the patellar reflex, making them incorrect choices.
3. When changing a client's colostomy pouch and noticing peristomal skin irritation, which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Change the pouch as needed based on individual requirements.
- B. Apply the pouch only when the skin barrier is completely dry.
- C. Pat the peristomal skin dry after cleaning.
- D. Ensure the pouch is 0.32 cm (1/8 in) larger than the stoma.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a nurse observes peristomal skin irritation while changing a client's colostomy pouch, it is crucial to ensure that the pouch is slightly larger (0.32 cm or 1/8 inch) than the stoma. This extra space helps prevent the pouch from rubbing against the stoma and causing further irritation. Option A is correct because colostomy pouches should be changed based on individual needs, not necessarily every 24 hours. Option B is incorrect because applying the pouch only when the skin barrier is completely dry ensures better adhesion. Option C is incorrect as patting the peristomal skin dry after cleaning is more gentle and less likely to cause irritation compared to rubbing.
4. The patient is being taught about flossing and oral hygiene. What instruction will the nurse include in the teaching session?
- A. Using waxed floss helps prevent bleeding
- B. Flossing removes plaque and tartar from the teeth
- C. Flossing at least 3 times a day is beneficial
- D. Applying toothpaste before flossing is harmful
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Flossing is essential for removing plaque and tartar between teeth, contributing to better oral hygiene. Choice A is not entirely accurate as waxed floss may not solely prevent bleeding. Flossing three times a day, as mentioned in choice C, can be excessive and unnecessary, while choice D is incorrect as applying toothpaste before flossing is not harmful but might not provide additional benefits.
5. The client is being discharged and has been prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the medication?
- A. I will take this medication on an empty stomach for optimal absorption.
- B. I will weigh myself daily and report any significant weight loss.
- C. I will include potassium-rich foods in my diet while taking this medication.
- D. I will take this medication in the morning to prevent nocturia.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Weighing daily and reporting significant weight loss is crucial when taking furosemide to monitor for potential fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide is typically taken on an empty stomach for optimal absorption. Choice C is incorrect as furosemide can lead to potassium loss, so potassium-rich foods should be consumed. Choice D is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken earlier in the day to prevent nocturia, not at bedtime.
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