HESI LPN
Practice HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. A staff nurse is teaching a newly hired nurse about alternatives to the use of restraints on clients who are confused. Which of the following instructions should the staff nurse include?
- A. Remove clocks from the client’s room
- B. Use full-length side rails on the client’s bed
- C. Check on the client frequently while they are in the restroom
- D. Encourage physical activity throughout the day to expend energy
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Encouraging physical activity throughout the day is an effective way to manage confusion in clients and reduce the need for restraints. Physical activity helps in expending energy, promoting circulation, and improving overall well-being. Removing clocks from the client’s room (choice A) may not directly address the issue of confusion or reduce the need for restraints. Using full-length side rails on the client’s bed (choice B) can actually increase the risk of entrapment and should be avoided. Checking on the client frequently while they are in the restroom (choice C) is important for monitoring safety but may not directly address the underlying issue of confusion and the need for restraints.
2. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of Guillain-Barre syndrome. Which assessment finding is most concerning?
- A. Loss of reflexes in the legs
- B. Decreased peripheral sensation
- C. Respiratory distress
- D. Muscle weakness in the arms
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Respiratory distress. In Guillain-Barre syndrome, respiratory distress is the most concerning finding as it can indicate progression to respiratory failure, which is a life-threatening complication. Loss of reflexes in the legs and muscle weakness in the arms are common manifestations of the condition but may not be as immediately life-threatening as respiratory distress. Decreased peripheral sensation is also a common symptom but is not as critical as respiratory distress in terms of immediate patient safety and management.
3. UAP has lowered the head of the bed to change the linens for a client who is bedridden. Which observation...most immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. A feeding is infusing at 40 mL/hr through an enteral feeding tube.
- B. The urine meter attached to the urinary drainage bag is completely full.
- C. There is a large dependent loop in the client's urinary drainage tubing.
- D. Purulent drainage is present around the insertion site of the feeding tube.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Purulent drainage around the insertion site of the feeding tube indicates an infection, which requires immediate attention. This may be a sign of a serious complication that needs prompt nursing intervention to prevent further complications or deterioration in the client's condition. Choices A, B, and C do not indicate an immediate threat to the client's health. While option A highlights the infusion rate of the feeding, it does not pose an immediate risk compared to the presence of purulent drainage indicating infection.
4. A client reports increased pain following physical therapy. Which of the following questions should the nurse ask to assess the quality of the pain?
- A. Is the pain sharp or dull?
- B. Does the pain feel like burning or aching?
- C. Is the pain constant or intermittent?
- D. Does the pain feel like throbbing or stabbing?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When assessing pain quality, asking if the pain is sharp or dull helps determine the nature of the pain. Sharp pain is often associated with acute conditions, while dull pain may indicate a chronic issue. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the quality of the pain in terms of sharpness or dullness.
5. Postoperative client with fluid volume deficit. Which change indicates successful treatment?
- A. Decrease in heart rate
- B. Increase in blood pressure
- C. Decrease in respiratory rate
- D. Increase in urine output
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A decrease in heart rate can indicate improved fluid balance and successful treatment of fluid volume deficit. When a client is experiencing fluid volume deficit, the heart rate typically increases as a compensatory mechanism to maintain cardiac output. As fluid volume is restored and the deficit is corrected, the heart rate should decrease back towards a normal range. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to be directly related to the successful treatment of fluid volume deficit. An increase in blood pressure may occur as a compensatory response to fluid volume deficit; a decrease in respiratory rate is not a typical indicator of fluid volume deficit correction; and an increase in urine output can be a sign of improved kidney function but may not directly reflect fluid volume status.
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