HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Exam 1
1. The client with a new colostomy is being taught about colostomy care. Which statement by the client indicates effective learning?
- A. I will change my colostomy bag every day.
- B. I should eat a low-fiber diet.
- C. I need to inspect the stoma daily for color and swelling.
- D. I can skip my colostomy care if I feel well.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because inspecting the stoma daily is crucial in identifying any early signs of complications or infections. Choice A is incorrect because changing the colostomy bag daily is not necessary unless there is a specific reason to do so. Choice B is incorrect as a low-fiber diet is not usually recommended for colostomy care. Choice D is incorrect because colostomy care should be performed regularly regardless of how the client feels.
2. A client with a diagnosis of chronic heart failure is receiving digoxin. What is the most important assessment before administering this medication?
- A. Check blood pressure.
- B. Assess heart rate.
- C. Monitor respiratory rate.
- D. Measure oxygen saturation.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the heart rate. Before administering digoxin, it is essential to evaluate the heart rate as digoxin can cause bradycardia. While checking blood pressure, monitoring respiratory rate, and measuring oxygen saturation are important assessments in the care of a client with chronic heart failure, assessing the heart rate is particularly critical due to the medication's potential impact on heart rhythm.
3. The nurse is assessing a client with congestive heart failure who is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Sodium level
- B. Potassium level
- C. Calcium level
- D. Chloride level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium level. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring the potassium level is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Sodium level (choice A) is not typically affected by furosemide. Calcium level (choice C) and chloride level (choice D) are also not the primary focus of monitoring when a client is on furosemide for heart failure.
4. The nurse plans to administer the rubella vaccine to a postpartum client whose titer is < 1:8 and who is breastfeeding. What information should the nurse provide this client?
- A. The client should bottle feed and pump her breast for 3 days following immunization
- B. The vaccine is given to produce maternal antibodies before lactation occurs
- C. The infant will receive immunization through the mother's breast milk
- D. The client should not get pregnant for 3 months after immunization
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Educating about the waiting period helps prevent possible rubella infection in a subsequent early pregnancy.
5. When reconstituted, how many milligrams are in each milliliter of solution?
- A. 300 mg/mL
- B. 350 mg/mL
- C. 450 mg/mL
- D. 400 mg/mL
Correct answer: D
Rationale: After reconstitution, the concentration of the cefazolin solution is 400 mg/mL. This calculation is derived by dividing the total milligrams in the vial (1000 mg) by the total volume after reconstitution (2.5 mL). Therefore, each milliliter of the solution contains 400 mg of cefazolin. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not match the correct calculation based on the information provided.
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