Nursing Elites

1. A client is diagnosed with Angina Pectoris. Which factor in the client's history is likely related to the anginal pain?

• A. Smokes one pack of cigarettes daily
• B. Drinks two beers daily
• C. Works in a job that requires exposure to the sun
• D. Eats while lying in bed

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Smokes one pack of cigarettes daily.' Smoking is a major risk factor for angina and other cardiovascular diseases due to its impact on blood vessels. Choice B, 'Drinks two beers daily,' is not directly associated with angina pectoris. While excessive alcohol consumption can contribute to heart problems, it is not a primary risk factor for angina. Choice C, 'Works in a job that requires exposure to the sun,' is not typically related to angina pectoris. Sun exposure is more closely linked to skin-related conditions. Choice D, 'Eats while lying in bed,' is also not a common risk factor for angina. While certain eating habits can impact heart health, this specific behavior is not directly associated with angina pectoris.

2. While caring for a client who is being mechanically ventilated, the nurse responds to a high-pressure alarm on the ventilator. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Endotracheal cuff pressure greater than 25 cm H2O.
• B. Decreased lung compliance during ventilation.
• C. Bilateral crackles with increased secretions.
• D. Restless client who is biting the endotracheal tube.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A restless client biting the endotracheal tube can increase airway resistance, triggering the high-pressure alarm and indicating a need for immediate intervention. This behavior can lead to complications such as dislodgement of the tube or airway obstruction. Endotracheal cuff pressure greater than 25 cm H2O, decreased lung compliance, and bilateral crackles with increased secretions are important assessments but do not directly address the urgent need to intervene when a high-pressure alarm is triggered.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which position should the nurse avoid?

• A. Keeping the head of the bed elevated at 30 degrees
• B. Positioning the client in the prone position
• C. Placing the client in a lateral recumbent position
• D. Elevating the client's legs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Positioning the client in the prone position. Placing the client in the prone position should be avoided in a client with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) as it can further raise ICP. The prone position can hinder venous return and increase pressure within the cranial vault, potentially worsening the client's condition. Keeping the head of the bed elevated at 30 degrees helps promote venous drainage and reduce ICP. Placing the client in a lateral recumbent position can also assist in reducing ICP by optimizing cerebral perfusion. Elevating the client's legs can help improve venous return and maintain adequate cerebral blood flow, making it a suitable positioning intervention for managing increased ICP.

4. A client comes to the antepartal clinic and tells the nurse that she is 6 weeks pregnant. Which sign is she most likely to report?

• A. Decreased sexual libido
• B. Amenorrhea
• C. Quickening
• D. Nocturia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Amenorrhea is the absence of menstrual periods and is a common early sign of pregnancy, typically reported by a client who is 6 weeks pregnant. Decreased sexual libido (Choice A) may or may not be experienced in early pregnancy, but it is not as specific as amenorrhea. Quickening (Choice C) refers to fetal movements felt by the mother, which usually occurs around 18-20 weeks of pregnancy, not at 6 weeks. Nocturia (Choice D) is waking up at night to urinate and is not typically associated with early pregnancy.

5. A client is being treated for heart failure. What should the nurse monitor to evaluate treatment effectiveness?

• A. Daily weight
• B. Electrolyte levels
• C. Urine output
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Monitoring daily weight, electrolyte levels, and urine output is crucial in evaluating treatment effectiveness for heart failure. Daily weight monitoring helps assess fluid retention or loss, changes in electrolyte levels can indicate imbalances affecting heart function, and urine output monitoring provides insights into kidney function and fluid balance. Therefore, all options are essential components in assessing the patient's fluid status and response to treatment, making 'All of the above' the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect individually as they only represent partial aspects of monitoring heart failure treatment effectiveness.

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