Nursing Elites

1. A client admitted to the hospital with advanced liver failure related to chronic alcoholism is exhibiting ascites and edema. Which pathophysiological mechanisms should the nurse identify as responsible for the third spacing symptoms? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Portal hypertension.
• B. Sodium and water retention.
• C. Decreased serum albumin.
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In advanced liver failure related to chronic alcoholism, ascites and edema occur due to multiple pathophysiological mechanisms. Portal hypertension contributes to the development of ascites by increasing pressure in the portal venous system. Sodium and water retention exacerbate fluid accumulation in the third space. Decreased serum albumin levels lead to reduced oncotic pressure, contributing to the movement of fluid into the interstitial spaces. Abnormal protein metabolism further disrupts fluid balance. Therefore, all of the options (A, B, and C) are correct in this scenario, making choice D the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C alone do not fully explain the comprehensive pathophysiological mechanisms involved in the development of ascites and edema in this clinical context.

2. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI). Which intervention is a priority during the acute phase?

• A. Administer morphine for pain relief
• B. Encourage the client to perform isometric exercises
• C. Position the client flat in bed
• D. Restrict fluid intake

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During the acute phase of a myocardial infarction (MI), the priority intervention is to administer morphine for pain relief. Morphine not only alleviates pain but also reduces myocardial oxygen demand, which is crucial in the management of MI. Encouraging the client to perform isometric exercises (choice B) can increase myocardial oxygen demand and should be avoided during the acute phase. Positioning the client flat in bed (choice C) may worsen symptoms by increasing venous return and workload on the heart. Restricting fluid intake (choice D) is not a priority intervention during the acute phase of MI; maintaining adequate hydration is important for organ perfusion.

3. The nurse is assessing a client who has just received a blood transfusion. The client reports chills and back pain. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Slow the rate of transfusion.
• B. Administer an antipyretic.
• C. Stop the transfusion immediately.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Stop the transfusion immediately. Chills and back pain are indicative of a possible transfusion reaction, which is a critical situation. Stopping the transfusion is crucial to prevent further complications and ensure the client's safety. Slowing the rate of transfusion (Choice A) is not sufficient in this case as immediate action is required. Administering an antipyretic (Choice B) may help with fever but does not address the potential severe reaction. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) can be done after stopping the transfusion, but the priority is to halt the infusion to prevent harm.

4. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ). Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'B. Hyponatremia.' Hydrochlorothiazide can lead to electrolyte imbalances, such as hyponatremia, due to its diuretic effect. This potential adverse effect should be closely monitored in patients taking HCTZ. Choice A, hyperkalemia, is less likely to occur with HCTZ as it tends to cause hypokalemia. Choice C, bradycardia, is not a common adverse effect of HCTZ. Choice D, hyperglycemia, is also less commonly associated with HCTZ use compared to hyponatremia.

5. What is the primary purpose of a chest tube in a client's care?

• A. To drain air and fluid from the pleural space
• B. To prevent infection in the thoracic cavity
• C. To assist with lung expansion
• D. To monitor intrathoracic pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: To drain air and fluid from the pleural space. A chest tube is primarily used to remove accumulated air or fluid in the pleural space, preventing lung collapse or compromise of lung function. This intervention aims to re-expand the lung and enhance respiratory function. Choice B is incorrect because preventing infection is not the primary purpose of a chest tube. Choice C is incorrect as lung expansion is a result of draining the pleural space, not the primary goal. Choice D is incorrect as monitoring intrathoracic pressure is not the main objective of a chest tube insertion.

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