Nursing Elites

1. A client admitted to the hospital with advanced liver failure related to chronic alcoholism is exhibiting ascites and edema. Which pathophysiological mechanisms should the nurse identify as responsible for the third spacing symptoms? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Portal hypertension.
• B. Sodium and water retention.
• C. Decreased serum albumin.
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In advanced liver failure related to chronic alcoholism, ascites and edema occur due to multiple pathophysiological mechanisms. Portal hypertension contributes to the development of ascites by increasing pressure in the portal venous system. Sodium and water retention exacerbate fluid accumulation in the third space. Decreased serum albumin levels lead to reduced oncotic pressure, contributing to the movement of fluid into the interstitial spaces. Abnormal protein metabolism further disrupts fluid balance. Therefore, all of the options (A, B, and C) are correct in this scenario, making choice D the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C alone do not fully explain the comprehensive pathophysiological mechanisms involved in the development of ascites and edema in this clinical context.

2. The nurse is with a client when the healthcare provider explains that the biopsy classifies the results as a T1N0M0 tumor. What response should the nurse provide first?

• A. The letters represent tumor size, node involvement, and metastasis in cancer staging.
• B. The letters stand for tumor size, node involvement, and metastasis.
• C. Let me explain the cancer staging to you.
• D. Would you like further clarification on the tumor staging?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer as it accurately explains that the letters T, N, and M in cancer staging represent tumor size, node involvement, and metastasis, respectively. Understanding this staging system helps the client comprehend the extent and severity of the disease. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A has the correct information but is not the most precise response. Choice C is vague and does not directly address the client's need for clarification. Choice D offers further clarification without directly addressing the initial explanation provided by the healthcare provider.

3. A client with a diagnosis of chronic heart failure is receiving digoxin. What is the most important instruction the nurse should provide?

• A. Take the medication with a high-fiber meal
• B. Monitor pulse rate daily before taking the medication
• C. Avoid dairy products while on this medication
• D. Discontinue the medication if blurred vision is experienced

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important instruction the nurse should provide is to monitor pulse rate daily before taking the medication. Digoxin can lead to bradycardia, so it is crucial to assess the pulse rate before administering the medication. This practice helps ensure that the heart rate is not too low for the safe use of digoxin. Choice A is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to take digoxin with a high-fiber meal. Choice C is also incorrect because there is no need to avoid dairy products while on digoxin. Choice D is incorrect since blurred vision is not a common side effect of digoxin; hence, it is not the most critical instruction to provide.

4. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. Which potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Persistent cough
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Persistent cough. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor commonly associated with a persistent dry cough as a side effect. This cough is thought to result from increased bradykinin levels. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypokalemia is not a common side effect of lisinopril; in fact, it may lead to hyperkalemia. Hyperglycemia is not a typical side effect of lisinopril use. Tachycardia is also not a common side effect associated with ACE inhibitors like lisinopril.

5. The nurse is assessing a client who has been receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) for several days. Which complication should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypoglycemia. When a client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) with a high glucose content, the risk of hypoglycemia is significant due to sudden increases in insulin release in response to the glucose load. The nurse should monitor for signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia such as shakiness, sweating, palpitations, and confusion. Hyperglycemia (choice A) is not typically a complication of TPN as the high glucose content is more likely to cause hypoglycemia. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypokalemia (choice D) are electrolyte imbalances that can occur in clients receiving TPN, but hypoglycemia is the more common and immediate concern that the nurse should monitor for.

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