HESI LPN
Fundamentals HESI
1. The healthcare provider is educating a client about dietary changes to prevent the recurrence of calcium oxalate kidney stones. Which food should the provider advise the client to avoid?
- A. Spinach
- B. Bananas
- C. Chicken
- D. Rice
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Spinach. Spinach is high in oxalate, a compound that can contribute to the formation of calcium oxalate kidney stones. Therefore, advising the client to avoid spinach is crucial in reducing the risk of stone recurrence. Bananas (choice B) are not high in oxalate and do not directly contribute to the formation of calcium oxalate stones, so they do not need to be avoided. Similarly, choices C and D, chicken, and rice, are not typically associated with high oxalate content, making them safe choices and do not need to be avoided specifically to prevent calcium oxalate kidney stones.
2. You have a patient who has just had a diagnostic arthroscopy. You are instructing him about what to do when he gets home. Which of the following would you NOT instruct him to do?
- A. Resume normal activities within 12 hours so as to help reduce the swelling
- B. Elevate the extremity for 24 – 48 hours
- C. Apply ice to the area involved intermittently
- D. Report severe pain to the physician immediately
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Patients should rest and avoid normal activities for a short period after arthroscopy to allow healing and prevent swelling, which could worsen with early activity. Elevation and icing are recommended post-procedure to reduce swelling and pain. Instructing the patient to resume normal activities within 12 hours could lead to increased swelling and delayed healing. Reporting severe pain is crucial as it could indicate a complication. Therefore, the correct instruction is not to resume normal activities immediately after arthroscopy.
3. A primiparous woman presents in labor with the following labs: hemoglobin 10.9 g/dL, hematocrit 29%, hepatitis surface antigen positive, Group B Streptococcus positive, and rubella non-immune. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Transfuse 2 units of packed red blood cells.
- B. Give measles, mumps, rubella vaccine 0.5 mL.
- C. Administer ampicillin 2 grams intravenously.
- D. Inject hepatitis B immune globulin 0.5 milliliters.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention in this scenario is to administer ampicillin 2 grams intravenously. This is crucial to prevent Group B Streptococcus infection in the newborn during delivery. Option A, transfusing packed red blood cells, is not indicated based on the hemoglobin and hematocrit levels provided. Option B, giving measles, mumps, rubella vaccine, is not necessary at this time. Option D, injecting hepatitis B immune globulin, is not appropriate for the conditions presented in the question.
4. A client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) has been taking riluzole for two weeks. The nurse notes that the client remains weak with observable muscle atrophy. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Explain that the medication may take time to show improvement in symptoms
- B. Withhold the medication and notify the healthcare provider
- C. Advise the client to undergo liver function tests
- D. Document the assessment findings in the electronic health record
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse's priority is to document the assessment findings in the electronic health record. This action is crucial for maintaining an accurate record of the client's health status and can provide valuable information for the healthcare team. While it is important to monitor the client's response to riluzole, explaining that the medication may take time to show improvement (Choice A) would be more appropriate if the client was expecting immediate results. Withholding the medication and notifying the healthcare provider (Choice B) should not be the initial action without further assessment or guidance. Advising the client to undergo liver function tests (Choice C) is not directly related to the current situation of weakness and muscle atrophy.
5. When lactulose (Cephulac) 30 ml QID is prescribed for a male client with advanced cirrhosis, and he complains that it causes diarrhea, what action should the nurse take in response to the client’s statement?
- A. Explain that diarrhea is expected, but the drug reduces ammonia levels
- B. Document that the client is non-compliant with his treatment plan
- C. Tell the client to be concerned about more significant side effects of this drug
- D. Obtain a prescription for loperamide (Imodium) 4mg PO PRN diarrhea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Diarrhea is an expected side effect of lactulose when used to reduce ammonia levels in cirrhosis. It helps in decreasing the absorption of ammonia in the colon, thereby reducing its levels in the blood. Option B is incorrect because it is essential for the nurse to educate the client about the expected side effects of the medication rather than assuming non-compliance. Option C is incorrect as it instills unnecessary fear in the client by suggesting more significant side effects without addressing the current concern. Option D is incorrect as loperamide should not be given automatically for diarrhea caused by lactulose, as the diarrhea is a therapeutic effect of the medication in this context.