Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is educating a client about dietary changes to prevent the recurrence of calcium oxalate kidney stones. Which food should the provider advise the client to avoid?

• A. Spinach
• B. Bananas
• C. Chicken
• D. Rice

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Spinach. Spinach is high in oxalate, a compound that can contribute to the formation of calcium oxalate kidney stones. Therefore, advising the client to avoid spinach is crucial in reducing the risk of stone recurrence. Bananas (choice B) are not high in oxalate and do not directly contribute to the formation of calcium oxalate stones, so they do not need to be avoided. Similarly, choices C and D, chicken, and rice, are not typically associated with high oxalate content, making them safe choices and do not need to be avoided specifically to prevent calcium oxalate kidney stones.

2. A healthcare provider is providing teaching about health promotion guidelines to a group of young adult male clients. Which of the following guidelines should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Obtain a tetanus booster every 5 years.
• B. Obtain a herpes zoster immunization by age 50.
• C. Have a dental examination every 6 months.
• D. Have a testicular examination every 2 years.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Having a dental examination every 6 months is crucial for young adult males as it helps in maintaining good oral health and detecting any potential issues early on. Tetanus booster every 10 years is recommended for adults, not every 5 years (Choice A). Herpes zoster immunization is typically recommended for individuals aged 60 and older, not by age 50 (Choice B). While testicular self-examination is important for detecting testicular cancer, routine clinical testicular examinations are not generally needed every 2 years (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is to have a dental examination every 6 months.

3. The nurse manager hears a healthcare provider loudly criticize one of the staff nurses within the hearing of others. The employee does not respond to the healthcare provider's complaints. The nurse manager's next action should be to

• A. Approach the healthcare provider and staff nurse for a private meeting to address the situation.
• B. Allow the staff nurse to handle this situation without interference.
• C. Notify other administrative personnel of a breach of professional conduct.
• D. Request an immediate private meeting with the healthcare provider and staff nurse.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse manager in this situation is to request an immediate private meeting with the healthcare provider and staff nurse. By doing so, the nurse manager can facilitate a more appropriate and professional discussion of the issues at hand in a private setting. Option A, which involves addressing the behavior quietly, may not effectively resolve the issue as it needs to be openly discussed. Option B is not advisable as the nurse manager should intervene to address the situation and provide support. Option C, notifying other administrative personnel, may escalate the situation unnecessarily before attempting to resolve it directly with the involved parties.

4. A nurse is preparing to check a client's blood pressure. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Apply the cuff above the client's antecubital fossa.
• B. Use a cuff with a width that is about 60% of the client's arm circumference.
• C. Have the client sit with their arm resting at the level of their heart.
• D. Release the pressure on the client's arm at a rate of 5 to 6 mm per second.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action when checking a client's blood pressure is to apply the cuff above the client's antecubital fossa. Placing the cuff above this area allows for an accurate measurement of blood pressure. Choice B is incorrect because the cuff width should be approximately 40% of the arm circumference, not 60%. Choice C is incorrect as the client's arm should rest at heart level, not above it, to ensure an accurate reading. Choice D is incorrect as the pressure on the client's arm should be released at a rate of 2 to 3 mm per second, not 5 to 6 mm per second.

5. A client is contemplating retirement and expresses uncertainty about wanting to retire. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. Let’s talk about how the change in your job status will affect you.
• B. Have you considered the financial implications of retirement?
• C. What are your thoughts on retirement and how it may impact your life?
• D. Would you like to discuss potential activities you could engage in during retirement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choosing option A, 'Let’s talk about how the change in your job status will affect you,' is the most appropriate response in this scenario. By discussing how retirement might affect the client, the nurse can address the client's concerns and emotions about the impending change. Option B, 'Have you considered the financial implications of retirement?' is not the best response as it focuses solely on financial aspects and does not address the client's emotional readiness for retirement. Option C, 'What are your thoughts on retirement and how it may impact your life?' is more open-ended and may not address the immediate concerns of the client expressing uncertainty. Option D, 'Would you like to discuss potential activities you could engage in during retirement?' assumes the client is certain about retiring and focuses on activities rather than addressing the client's feelings of uncertainty.

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