a client is to receive 10 meq of kcl diluted in 250 ml of normal saline over 4 hours at what rate should the lpnlvn set the clients intravenous infusi
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamental Practice Exam

1. A client is to receive 10 mEq of KCl diluted in 250 ml of normal saline over 4 hours. At what rate should the LPN/LVN set the client's intravenous infusion pump?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the correct rate of infusion, divide the total volume by the total time: 250 ml / 4 hours = 62.5 ml/hour, which is rounded up to 63 ml/hour. This rate ensures the proper administration of the KCl over the 4-hour period. Choice A (13 ml/hour) is incorrect as it does not match the calculated rate. Choices C (80 ml/hour) and D (125 ml/hour) are also incorrect as they do not correspond to the calculated rate needed for the specified time frame.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client’s oculomotor nerve functions. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Checking the client’s pupillary reaction to light is a key assessment to evaluate the oculomotor nerve function. The oculomotor nerve controls the pupil's constriction response to light. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because testing vision with a Snellen chart, identifying scents, or touching the cornea are not specific assessments for oculomotor nerve function.

3. A female client with chronic back pain has been taking muscle relaxants and analgesics to manage the discomfort, but is now experiencing an acute episode of pain that is not relieved by this medication regime. The client tells the nurse that she does not want to have back surgery for a herniated intervertebral disk, and reports that she has found acupuncture effective in resolving past acute episodes. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acupuncture has been effective for the client previously, supporting continued use.

4. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin). Which statement should the LPN/LVN include when teaching the client about this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to avoid taking antacids within 2 hours of phenytoin. Antacids can interfere with the absorption of phenytoin, reducing its effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because phenytoin should not be taken with milk, as it may decrease its absorption. Choice B is unrelated to the medication and focuses on dental hygiene. Choice D is important but not directly related to phenytoin; it is more relevant to monitoring for adverse effects of the medication.

5. During passive range of motion (ROM) and splinting, the absence of which finding will indicate goal achievement for these interventions?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Joint contractures. When a healthcare provider performs passive ROM and splinting on a patient, the goal is to prevent joint contractures. Joint contractures result from immobility and can lead to permanent stiffness and decreased range of motion. Atelectasis (choice A) is a condition where there is a complete or partial collapse of the lung, commonly due to immobility, but not directly related to passive ROM or splinting. Renal calculi (choice B) are kidney stones and are not typically associated with ROM exercises. Pressure ulcers (choice C) result from prolonged pressure on the skin and are prevented by repositioning the patient, not specifically addressed by ROM and splinting exercises.

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