a client is to receive 10 meq of kcl diluted in 250 ml of normal saline over 4 hours at what rate should the lpnlvn set the clients intravenous infusi
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamental Practice Exam

1. A client is to receive 10 mEq of KCl diluted in 250 ml of normal saline over 4 hours. At what rate should the LPN/LVN set the client's intravenous infusion pump?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the correct rate of infusion, divide the total volume by the total time: 250 ml / 4 hours = 62.5 ml/hour, which is rounded up to 63 ml/hour. This rate ensures the proper administration of the KCl over the 4-hour period. Choice A (13 ml/hour) is incorrect as it does not match the calculated rate. Choices C (80 ml/hour) and D (125 ml/hour) are also incorrect as they do not correspond to the calculated rate needed for the specified time frame.

2. The nurse is planning a meal plan that would provide the most iron for a child with anemia. Which dinner menu would be best?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Ground beef, lima beans, and raisins are rich sources of iron, making this meal plan the most suitable for a child with anemia. Ground beef is a high-iron meat, while lima beans and raisins are also excellent sources of iron. Fish sticks, french fries, banana, and cookies in option A lack sufficient iron content compared to the options in B. Chicken nuggets, macaroni, and peas in option C are not as iron-rich as the ground beef, lima beans, and raisins in option B. Peanut butter and jelly sandwich with apple slices in option D also fall short in providing enough iron when compared to the iron-rich components of option B.

3. A nurse is caring for an older adult client who is confused and continually grabs at the nurse. Which of the following is a nursing action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Redirecting the client's attention is the appropriate nursing action in this scenario. When dealing with a confused client exhibiting grabbing behavior, redirection can help shift their focus to a more appropriate activity or object. Firmly telling the client not to grab may escalate the situation and create a confrontational environment, which is not recommended when caring for confused clients. The use of physical restraints should be a last resort and only implemented after all other strategies have been exhausted, as they can contribute to increased agitation and distress in older adults. Avoiding contact with the client is not a proactive approach to managing the behavior and may lead to feelings of neglect or abandonment in the client.

4. Which client statement from the assessment data is likely to explain their noncompliance with propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal)?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal) is known to cause side effects such as diminished sexual function, which can lead to noncompliance with the medication due to its impact on quality of life. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to be associated with propranolol hydrochloride. While diarrhea, difficulty falling asleep, and feeling jittery are possible side effects of propranolol, they are not as commonly reported as diminished sexual function. Therefore, choice C is the most likely reason for the client's noncompliance.

5. A client has been admitted to the hospital with severe diarrhea. The nurse should monitor the client for which complication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Severe diarrhea can lead to metabolic acidosis due to the loss of bicarbonate. When there is excessive loss of bicarbonate through diarrhea, the pH of the blood decreases, leading to metabolic acidosis. Metabolic alkalosis (Choice B) is not typically associated with severe diarrhea as it involves elevated pH and bicarbonate levels. Hyperkalemia (Choice C) is less likely with severe diarrhea as potassium is often lost along with fluids. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not a common complication of severe diarrhea; instead, hypocalcemia may occur due to malabsorption of calcium.

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