Nursing Elites

1. While auscultating a client's abdomen, a nurse hears a blowing sound over the aorta. The nurse should identify this sound as which of the following?

• A. Gallop
• B. Bruit
• C. Thrill
• D. Murmur

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bruit. A bruit is a blowing sound indicating turbulent blood flow, often heard over the aorta. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. A gallop is a cardiac sound resembling the sound of a galloping horse. A thrill is a vibration felt on palpation, and a murmur is a swooshing or whooshing sound heard during auscultation of the heart or blood vessels. In this scenario, the blowing sound over the aorta specifically indicates a bruit, which signifies turbulent blood flow and should be further assessed by the healthcare provider.

2. While instructing a male client's wife in the performance of passive range-of-motion exercises to his contracted shoulder, the nurse observes that she is holding his arm above and below the elbow. What nursing action should the LPN/LVN implement?

• A. Acknowledge that she is supporting the arm correctly.
• B. Encourage her to keep the joint covered to maintain warmth.
• C. Reinforce the need to grip directly under the joint for better support.
• D. Instruct her to grip directly over the joint for better motion.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Acknowledging that the client's wife is supporting the arm correctly is the appropriate nursing action in this scenario. By doing so, the nurse reinforces correct technique and promotes confidence. Choice B is incorrect as the issue is not about maintaining warmth. Choice C is incorrect as gripping directly under the joint is not necessary in this case. Choice D is incorrect as instructing to grip directly over the joint may not provide the best support for passive range-of-motion exercises.

3. A client with a history of severe anxiety is scheduled for surgery. Which preoperative medication is the most appropriate for the LPN/LVN to administer to this client?

• A. Lorazepam (Ativan)
• B. Morphine sulfate
• C. Meperidine (Demerol)
• D. Promethazine (Phenergan)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lorazepam (Ativan) is the most appropriate preoperative medication for a client with severe anxiety. Lorazepam belongs to the benzodiazepine class and is commonly used to manage anxiety before surgical procedures due to its anxiolytic properties. Morphine sulfate and Meperidine (Demerol) are opioid analgesics, not typically indicated for preoperative anxiety. Promethazine (Phenergan) is an antihistamine used for nausea and vomiting, not anxiety management.

4. A client receiving chlorpromazine HCL (Thorazine) is in psychiatric home care. During a home visit, the nurse observes the client smacking her lips alternately with grinding her teeth. The nurse recognizes this assessment finding as what?

• A. Dystonia
• B. Akathisia
• C. Bradykinesia
• D. Tardive dyskinesia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tardive dyskinesia. Tardive dyskinesia is a potential side effect of long-term antipsychotic use, characterized by involuntary movements like lip smacking and repetitive, purposeless movements. Choice A, dystonia, presents with sustained or repetitive muscle contractions. Choice B, akathisia, involves motor restlessness and a compelling need to be in constant motion. Choice C, bradykinesia, refers to slowness of movement typically seen in Parkinson's disease, not lip smacking and teeth grinding, which are indicative of tardive dyskinesia.

5. A female client's significant other has been at her bedside providing reassurances and support for the past 3 days, as desired by the client. The client's estranged husband arrives and demands that the significant other not be allowed to visit or be given condition updates. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Obtain a perception from the healthcare provider regarding visitation privileges
• B. Request a consultation with the ethics committee for resolution of the situation
• C. Encourage the client to speak with her husband regarding his disruptive behavior
• D. Communicate the client's wishes to all members of the multidisciplinary team

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention is to communicate the client's wishes to all members of the multidisciplinary team. This action respects the client's autonomy and maintains her comfort by ensuring that her desires regarding visitation and support are known and upheld. Obtaining a perception from the healthcare provider regarding visitation privileges (Choice A) may not fully consider the client's preferences. Requesting a consultation with the ethics committee (Choice B) may be premature and could delay prompt resolution of the issue. Encouraging the client to speak with her husband (Choice C) may not be appropriate, as the husband's demands are disrupting the client's care and comfort, and the client may not feel safe or comfortable doing so.

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