Nursing Elites

1. During passive range of motion (ROM) exercises, how should the nurse perform each movement for a patient with impaired mobility?

• A. The nurse moves each movement just to the point of resistance.
• B. The patient repeats each movement 5 times.
• C. The movement continues until the patient reports pain.
• D. The nurse completes each movement quickly and smoothly.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During passive range of motion (ROM) exercises, the nurse is responsible for moving the patient's joints through their range of motion. The correct technique involves performing movements slowly and smoothly, only going to the point of resistance without causing pain. This technique helps maintain joint flexibility and prevent contractures. Choice A is the correct answer as it reflects the appropriate technique for passive ROM exercises. Choices B and C are incorrect because the patient is not actively participating, and ROM exercises should not cause pain. Choice D is incorrect as movements should be done deliberately and not quickly.

2. A provider prescribes cold application for a client who reports ankle joint stiffness. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse identify as a contraindication to the application of cold?

• A. Capillary refill of 4 seconds
• B. 7.5 cm (3 in) diameter bruise on the ankle
• C. Warts on the affected ankle
• D. 2+ pitting edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Capillary refill of 4 seconds indicates poor circulation, which is a contraindication to cold application as it could worsen the condition by further reducing blood flow. Choice B, a 7.5 cm (3 in) diameter bruise on the ankle, does not directly contraindicate cold application but may need evaluation for possible underlying injuries. Choice C, warts on the affected ankle, do not necessarily contraindicate cold application. Choice D, 2+ pitting edema, is not a direct contraindication to cold application but may need to be addressed separately.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing an immobile patient for deep vein thromboses (DVTs). Which action will the healthcare provider take?

• A. Remove elastic stockings every 4 hours.
• B. Measure the calf circumference of both legs.
• C. Lightly rub the lower leg for redness and tenderness.
• D. Dorsiflex the foot while assessing for patient discomfort.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action when assessing an immobile patient for deep vein thromboses (DVTs) is to measure the calf circumference of both legs. This helps in detecting swelling or changes that may indicate the presence of a DVT. Removing elastic stockings every 4 hours (Choice A) is not necessary and can disrupt circulation. Lightly rubbing the lower leg for redness and tenderness (Choice C) can potentially dislodge a clot if present. Dorsiflexing the foot while assessing for patient discomfort (Choice D) is not a specific assessment for DVT and may not provide relevant information in this context.

4. The nurse has admitted a 4-year-old with the diagnosis of possible rheumatic fever. Which statement by the parent would cause the nurse to suspect an association with this disease?

• A. Our child had chickenpox 6 months ago.
• B. Strep throat went through all the children at the day care last month.
• C. Both ears were infected over 3 months ago.
• D. Last week both feet had a fungal skin infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Rheumatic fever often follows a strep throat infection, which is why the nurse should suspect this association. Strep throat is caused by Group A Streptococcus bacteria, which can trigger an abnormal immune response leading to rheumatic fever. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because chickenpox, ear infections, and fungal skin infections are not typically associated with rheumatic fever.

5. When should discharge planning be initiated for a client experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure?

• A. During the admission process.
• B. After the client stabilizes.
• C. Only after the client requests it.
• D. At the time of discharge.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Discharge planning should begin during the admission process for a client experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure. Initiating discharge planning early ensures timely and effective care transitions, which are crucial for managing the client's condition and preventing readmissions. Waiting until after the client stabilizes (choice B) could lead to delays in arranging necessary follow-up care and support services. Similarly, waiting for the client to request discharge planning (choice C) may result in missed opportunities for comprehensive care coordination. Planning at the time of discharge (choice D) is too late, as early intervention is key to promoting the client's well-being and recovery in the long term.

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