HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals 2023 Quizlet
1. During passive range of motion (ROM) exercises, how should the nurse perform each movement for a patient with impaired mobility?
- A. The nurse moves each movement just to the point of resistance.
- B. The patient repeats each movement 5 times.
- C. The movement continues until the patient reports pain.
- D. The nurse completes each movement quickly and smoothly.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During passive range of motion (ROM) exercises, the nurse is responsible for moving the patient's joints through their range of motion. The correct technique involves performing movements slowly and smoothly, only going to the point of resistance without causing pain. This technique helps maintain joint flexibility and prevent contractures. Choice A is the correct answer as it reflects the appropriate technique for passive ROM exercises. Choices B and C are incorrect because the patient is not actively participating, and ROM exercises should not cause pain. Choice D is incorrect as movements should be done deliberately and not quickly.
2. The nurse is caring for a client with cirrhosis of the liver. Which finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Yellowing of the skin and eyes
- B. Dark-colored urine
- C. Abdominal distention
- D. Confusion
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Yellowing of the skin and eyes (jaundice) is a classic sign of liver dysfunction in clients with cirrhosis. Jaundice indicates the accumulation of bilirubin in the body due to impaired liver function. This finding suggests worsening liver damage and should be reported immediately to the healthcare provider for prompt evaluation and management. Dark-colored urine (choice B) is also a concerning symptom in liver disease, indicating possible bilirubin presence, but it is not as urgent as jaundice. Abdominal distention (choice C) and confusion (choice D) are common in cirrhosis but do not indicate an immediate need for healthcare provider notification compared to jajsondice.
3. A client with difficulty self-feeding due to rheumatoid arthritis should be referred to which member of the interprofessional care team to use adaptive devices?
- A. Social worker
- B. Certified nursing assistant
- C. Registered dietitian
- D. Occupational therapist
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Occupational therapist. Occupational therapists specialize in assisting clients with adaptive devices to enhance their ability to perform daily activities like self-feeding. They evaluate client needs and provide interventions to promote independence in activities of daily living. Choice A, Social worker, focuses on psychosocial support and community resources, not directly addressing the physical aspect of self-feeding difficulty. Choice B, Certified nursing assistant, is involved in direct patient care but lacks specialized training in adaptive devices. Choice C, Registered dietitian, primarily focuses on nutrition-related issues and may not have the expertise in adaptive devices and functional rehabilitation necessary for this client's self-feeding challenges.
4. A guardian reports that a 4-year-old child is waking up with nightmares. Which of the following interventions should the nurse suggest?
- A. Offer the child a large snack before bedtime.
- B. Allow the child to watch an extra 30 minutes of TV in the evening.
- C. Have the child go to bed at a consistent time every day.
- D. Increase physical activity before bedtime.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to have the child go to bed at a consistent time every day. Consistent bedtime routines can help reduce nightmares by providing the child with a sense of security and stability. Offering a large snack before bedtime or allowing extra TV time may disrupt sleep patterns and lead to nightmares. Increasing physical activity before bedtime could have the opposite effect and make it harder for the child to fall asleep.
5. During an admission assessment, a healthcare professional finds a client's radial pulse rate to be 68/min and the simultaneous apical pulse to be 84/min. What is the client’s pulse deficit (per minute)?
- A. 16
- B. 12
- C. 6
- D. 14
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The pulse deficit is calculated by finding the difference between the apical and radial pulse rates. In this case, the difference is 84 - 68 = 16. This indicates that there is a pulse deficit of 16 beats per minute. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the difference between the two pulse rates.
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