a client with rheumatoid arthritis has elevated serum rheumatoid factor which interpretation of this finding should the nurse make
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Medical Surgical HESI

1. A client with rheumatoid arthritis has elevated serum rheumatoid factor. Which interpretation of this finding should the nurse make?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct interpretation of elevated serum rheumatoid factor in a client with rheumatoid arthritis is confirmation of the autoimmune disease process. Rheumatoid factor is a marker for autoimmune activity, thus confirming the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. Choice A is incorrect as elevated rheumatoid factor does not specifically indicate spread of the disease to the kidney. Choice C is incorrect as elevated rheumatoid factor does not always represent a decline in the client's condition. Choice D is incorrect as elevated rheumatoid factor is not an indication of the onset of joint degeneration, but rather points towards autoimmune activity.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease is advised to follow a low-phosphorus diet. Which food should the client avoid?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: Milk. Milk is high in phosphorus and should be avoided in a low-phosphorus diet for clients with chronic kidney disease. Choice B (Apples), C (Carrots), and D (Rice) are not significant sources of phosphorus and can be included in moderation in a low-phosphorus diet. Apples and carrots are generally considered healthy choices for most individuals, while rice is a staple food that is low in phosphorus and can be part of a renal diet.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric tube. Which action should the nurse take to ensure proper functioning of the tube?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Verifying tube placement by checking the pH of gastric contents is crucial to ensure the nasogastric tube is correctly positioned in the stomach. This action helps prevent complications such as aspiration. Flushing the tube with normal saline every 8 hours is not necessary for ensuring proper functioning of the tube. Clamping the tube when not in use may lead to the build-up of gastric secretions and blockages. Positioning the client in a supine position is not directly related to ensuring the proper functioning of the nasogastric tube.

4. A client with a spinal cord injury at the level of T1 is at risk for autonomic dysreflexia. Which symptom is indicative of this condition?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia is a condition commonly seen in clients with spinal cord injuries at T6 or above. It is characterized by a sudden onset of severe hypertension, pounding headache, profuse sweating, nasal congestion, and flushing of the skin above the level of injury. The severe headache is a key symptom resulting from uncontrolled hypertension. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as autonomic dysreflexia typically presents with hypertension, not hypotension, tachycardia, or flushed skin below the level of injury.

5. A client is admitted to the emergency department with symptoms of arm numbness, chest pain, and nausea/vomiting. The examining healthcare provider believes that the client has experienced an acute myocardial infarction (AMI) within the past three hours and would like to initiate tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) therapy. Which client history findings contraindicate the use of tPA?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A history of cerebrovascular hemorrhage is a contraindication for tPA therapy due to the risk of bleeding. Choice A is incorrect because treating hypoglycemia with an oral hypoglycemic agent is not a contraindication for tPA therapy. Choice C is incorrect as age and family history of MI do not contraindicate the use of tPA. Choice D is incorrect as being intolerant of medication containing aspirin is not a contraindication for tPA therapy.

Similar Questions

A client admitted with left-sided heart failure has a heart rate of 110 beats per minute and is becoming increasingly dyspneic. Which additional assessment finding by the nurse supports the client’s admitting diagnosis?
A young adult client, admitted to the emergency department following a motor vehicle collision, is transfused with 4 units of PRBCs. The client’s pretransfusion hematocrit is 17%. Which hematocrit value should the nurse expect the client to have after all PRBCs have been transfused?
Which other congenital defects are common in children with Down syndrome?
A client with partial-thickness burns to the lower extremities is scheduled for whirlpool therapy to debride the burned area. Which intervention should the nurse implement before transporting the client to the physical therapy department?
Before selecting which medication to administer, which action should the nurse implement if a postoperative client reports incisional pain and has two prescriptions for PRN analgesia?

Access More Features

HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses