Nursing Elites

1. A client with rheumatoid arthritis has elevated serum rheumatoid factor. Which interpretation of this finding should the nurse make?

• A. Evidence of spread of the disease to the kidney.
• B. Confirmation of the autoimmune disease process.
• C. Representative of a decline in the client's condition.
• D. Indication of the onset of joint degeneration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct interpretation of elevated serum rheumatoid factor in a client with rheumatoid arthritis is confirmation of the autoimmune disease process. Rheumatoid factor is a marker for autoimmune activity, thus confirming the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. Choice A is incorrect as elevated rheumatoid factor does not specifically indicate spread of the disease to the kidney. Choice C is incorrect as elevated rheumatoid factor does not always represent a decline in the client's condition. Choice D is incorrect as elevated rheumatoid factor is not an indication of the onset of joint degeneration, but rather points towards autoimmune activity.

2. Which nursing diagnosis should be selected for a client who is receiving thrombolytic infusions for treatment of an acute myocardial infarction?

• A. Risk for infection related to thrombolysis.
• B. Risk for fluid volume deficit related to thrombolysis.
• C. Risk for impaired skin integrity related to thrombolysis.
• D. Risk for injury related to effects of thrombolysis.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Thrombolytic therapy increases the risk of bleeding, not infection, fluid volume deficit, or impaired skin integrity. The most significant concern with thrombolytic therapy is the potential for bleeding complications, which can lead to various injuries. Therefore, 'Risk for injury related to effects of thrombolysis' is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis in this scenario. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not directly correlate with the primary risk associated with thrombolytic therapy.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a chest tube. Which finding indicates that the chest tube is functioning properly?

• A. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber
• B. Tidaling in the water seal chamber
• C. Absence of drainage in the collection chamber
• D. Fluid level in the suction control chamber is below the prescribed level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Tidaling in the water seal chamber indicates proper chest tube function. Tidaling refers to the rise and fall of fluid in the water seal with inhalation and exhalation, demonstrating the patency of the system. Continuous bubbling (Choice A) in the water seal chamber indicates an air leak. Absence of drainage in the collection chamber (Choice C) is not a desired finding as it suggests no drainage is occurring. A fluid level below the prescribed level in the suction control chamber (Choice D) may indicate inadequate suction.

4. A client who has a history of hyperthyroidism was initially admitted with lethargy and confusion. Which additional finding warrants the most immediate action by the nurse?

• A. Facial puffiness and periorbital edema
• B. Hematocrit of 30%
• C. Cold and dry skin
• D. Further decline in LOC

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A further decline in LOC can indicate severe complications and requires immediate attention. This change may signify worsening neurological status, which could lead to life-threatening consequences if not addressed promptly. Choices A, B, and C may also be concerning in a client with a history of hyperthyroidism, but a further decline in LOC takes priority due to its potential for rapid deterioration and the need for urgent intervention.

5. Since children with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) take medication for long periods of time, side effects must be considered. How often should children be assessed for side effects of the drug therapy?

• A. Every 2 months
• B. Every 4 months
• C. Every 6 months
• D. Every 8 months

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Children with ADHD who are on long-term medication therapy should be assessed for side effects every 6 months. This timeframe allows healthcare providers to monitor the effects of the medication and make any necessary adjustments. Checking every 2 months (Choice A) may be too frequent and not practical for routine monitoring, while checking every 4 or 8 months (Choices B and D) may lead to missing potential side effects or delays in addressing them.

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