Nursing Elites

1. A client admitted to a surgical unit is being evaluated for an intestinal obstruction. The HCP prescribes an NG tube to be inserted and placed on intermittent low wall suction. Which intervention should the nurse implement to facilitate proper tube placement?

• A. Soak the NG tube in warm water
• B. Insert the tube with the client's head tilted back
• C. Apply suction while inserting the tube
• D. Elevate the head of the bed 60 to 90 degrees

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed 60 to 90 degrees is the correct intervention to facilitate proper placement of the NG tube. This position helps to use gravity to guide the tube smoothly into the gastrointestinal tract. Soaking the NG tube in warm water (Choice A) is not necessary for proper placement. Inserting the tube with the client's head tilted back (Choice B) can cause discomfort and may lead to improper placement. Applying suction while inserting the tube (Choice C) is not recommended as it can cause trauma to the nasal passages and esophagus.

2. While walking to the mailbox, an older adult male experiences sudden chest tightness and drives himself to the emergency department. When the client gets up to the desk of the triage nurse, he says his heart is pounding out of his chest as he clutches his chest and falls to the floor. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Prepare for cardiac defibrillation.
• B. Apply cardiac monitor leads.
• C. Obtain troponin serum levels.
• D. Palpate the client’s artery.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Palpating the client's artery is the priority intervention in this scenario because it helps determine if there is a pulse, which is crucial information in emergency situations like this. If the client is pulseless, immediate initiation of CPR is necessary. Applying cardiac monitor leads or obtaining troponin serum levels can wait until the presence of a pulse is confirmed. Cardiac defibrillation is not indicated without first assessing the client's pulse and cardiac rhythm.

3. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Report any signs of a sore throat or fever immediately
• B. Take the medication with antacids to reduce stomach upset
• C. Discontinue the medication if you feel drowsy
• D. Increase the dosage if you experience an aura

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Report any signs of a sore throat or fever immediately.' Phenytoin can cause blood dyscrasias, which can manifest as a sore throat or fever. These symptoms could indicate a serious side effect that requires immediate medical attention. Choice B is incorrect because phenytoin should not be taken with antacids as they can decrease its absorption. Choice C is incorrect because discontinuing phenytoin abruptly can lead to rebound seizures; drowsiness is a common side effect that may improve with time. Choice D is incorrect because adjusting the dosage of phenytoin should only be done under healthcare provider supervision, not based on experiencing an aura.

4. Parents of a 6-month-old child, who has just been diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia, ask why it was not diagnosed earlier. What would be the best response by the nurse?

• A. Are you sure your child has iron deficiency anemia?
• B. This happens when the maternal stores of iron are depleted at about 6 months.
• C. This anemia is caused by blood loss.
• D. The child may not have had it for a long time.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best response by the nurse would be choice B: 'This happens when the maternal stores of iron are depleted at about 6 months.' Iron deficiency anemia becomes apparent at about 6 months of age in a full-term infant when the maternal stores of iron are depleted. Choice A is incorrect because it questions the diagnosis provided by the healthcare provider. Choice C is incorrect because iron deficiency anemia in infants is primarily due to insufficient iron intake rather than blood loss. Choice D is incorrect as iron deficiency anemia typically develops gradually due to inadequate iron intake.

5. A client with Cushing's Syndrome is recovering from an elective laparoscopic procedure. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Irregular apical pulse
• B. Purple marks on the skin of the abdomen
• C. Quarter-sized blood spot on the dressing
• D. Pitting ankle edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Irregular apical pulse. In a client recovering from a laparoscopic procedure with Cushing's Syndrome, an irregular apical pulse can be indicative of a life-threatening arrhythmia and requires immediate intervention. Choices B, C, and D are not as urgent as an irregular apical pulse. Purple marks on the skin of the abdomen may be related to Cushing's Syndrome, a quarter-sized blood spot on the dressing can be managed with appropriate wound care, and pitting ankle edema may be expected postoperatively but does not require immediate intervention.

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