Nursing Elites

1. A client with panic disorder is prescribed sertraline (Zoloft). What is the most important information for the nurse to provide?

• A. You should take this medication at the same time every day.
• B. It may take several weeks for you to feel the full effect.
• C. This medication may cause a significant increase in appetite.
• D. You may experience dizziness, so avoid driving.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. SSRIs like sertraline may take several weeks to reach their full therapeutic effect, so it's important to inform the client to be patient with the treatment. Choice A is not the most crucial information regarding sertraline. Choice C is not a common side effect of sertraline. Choice D is important but not as crucial as informing about the delayed onset of action.

2. A male client approaches the nurse with an angry expression on his face and raises his voice, saying, 'My roommate is the most selfish, self-centered, angry person I have ever met. If he loses his temper one more time with me, I am going to punch him out!' The nurse recognizes that the client is using which defense mechanism?

• A. Denial
• B. Projection
• C. Rationalization
• D. Splitting

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Projection. In this scenario, the client is projecting his own feelings of anger and selfishness onto his roommate. Projection is a defense mechanism where individuals attribute their own unacceptable thoughts, feelings, and motives to another person. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Denial is refusing to acknowledge an aspect of reality or experience. Rationalization is providing logical-sounding reasons to justify unacceptable behaviors or feelings. Splitting is seeing individuals as all good or all bad, with no middle ground.

3. A client in the manic phase of bipolar disorder is pacing the hallway and talking rapidly. What is the best intervention for the nurse?

• A. Encourage the client to join a group activity.
• B. Offer the client a high-calorie snack and a drink.
• C. Direct the client to a quieter area of the unit.
• D. Instruct the client to sit down and relax.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the manic phase of bipolar disorder, clients often exhibit increased activity and may burn a lot of energy. Offering a high-calorie snack and a drink is the best intervention as it helps maintain their nutritional needs while allowing them to continue their activity. Encouraging the client to join a group activity (Choice A) may further stimulate their behavior. Directing the client to a quieter area (Choice C) might not address their energy expenditure. Instructing the client to sit down and relax (Choice D) may not be effective during the manic phase.

4. The LPN/LVN should include which interventions in the plan of care for a severely depressed client with neurovegetative symptoms? (select one that does not apply.)

• A. Permit rest periods as needed.
• B. Speaking slowly and simply.
• C. Place the client on suicide precautions.
• D. Limit and discourage food and fluid intake.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: For a severely depressed client with neurovegetative symptoms, the care plan should include rest, simple communication, suicide precautions, monitoring intake, and encouraging mild exercise. Limiting and discouraging food and fluid intake is not appropriate as proper nutrition and hydration are essential for overall well-being. This choice could lead to further complications and is not recommended in the care of a depressed client.

5. The RN is preparing to administer a prescribed dose of haloperidol (Haldol) to a client with schizophrenia. The client begins to exhibit muscle rigidity, fever, and altered mental status. What action should the RN take first?

• A. Administer the haloperidol as prescribed.
• B. Monitor the client's vital signs closely.
• C. Hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider.
• D. Give the client an antipyretic for the fever.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Muscle rigidity, fever, and altered mental status are symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a potentially life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medications. The RN should hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider immediately. Option A is incorrect because administering more of the medication can worsen the symptoms. Option B is not the first priority when the client is experiencing symptoms of NMS. Option D is incorrect as addressing the fever alone does not address the underlying issue of NMS caused by haloperidol.

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