Nursing Elites

1. A client with panic disorder is prescribed sertraline (Zoloft). What is the most important information for the nurse to provide?

• A. You should take this medication at the same time every day.
• B. It may take several weeks for you to feel the full effect.
• C. This medication may cause a significant increase in appetite.
• D. You may experience dizziness, so avoid driving.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. SSRIs like sertraline may take several weeks to reach their full therapeutic effect, so it's important to inform the client to be patient with the treatment. Choice A is not the most crucial information regarding sertraline. Choice C is not a common side effect of sertraline. Choice D is important but not as crucial as informing about the delayed onset of action.

2. A nurse is caring for a client with major depressive disorder who is withdrawn and refuses to participate in group activities. What is the best nursing intervention?

• A. Encourage the client to attend at least one group session.
• B. Respect the client's wish to remain isolated.
• C. Arrange for individual therapy sessions.
• D. Offer the client a list of activities to choose from.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging the client to attend at least one group session is the best nursing intervention in this scenario. By gently encouraging participation, the nurse can help the client start to engage with others, which may gradually improve their mood and social interaction. Choice B, respecting the client's wish to remain isolated, may further exacerbate the client's withdrawal and depression by reinforcing avoidance behavior. Choice C, arranging for individual therapy sessions, can be beneficial but may not address the specific need for social interaction. Choice D, offering a list of activities to choose from, does not directly address the client's difficulty in participating in group activities and may not provide the necessary support in overcoming social withdrawal.

3. A 46-year-old female client has been on antipsychotic neuroleptic medication for the past three days. She has had a decrease in psychotic behavior and appears to be responding well to the medication. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. Which action will the nurse initiate?

• A. Place the client on seizure precautions and monitor closely.
• B. Immediately transfer the client to the ICU.
• C. Report the symptoms to the charge nurse and document in the client's chart.
• D. No action is required at this time as these are known side effects of such medications.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: These symptoms are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), which is a severe and life-threatening reaction to neuroleptic drugs. The major symptoms include fever, rigidity, autonomic instability, and encephalopathy. Respiratory failure, cardiovascular collapse, arrhythmias, and/or renal failure can lead to death. This is an emergency situation requiring immediate critical care, thus the correct action is to transfer the client to the ICU (B). Seizure precautions (A) are not relevant in this scenario. Merely describing the symptoms to the charge nurse and documenting them (C) or taking no action assuming these are common side effects (D) fail to address the critical nature of the situation and the urgency of immediate intervention.

4. A male client who has been on lithium therapy for 5 years is experiencing frequent urination and increased thirst. What should the nurse's next action be?

• A. Instruct the client to increase fluid intake.
• B. Assess for signs of lithium toxicity.
• C. Suggest the client reduce salt intake.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Frequent urination and increased thirst can be signs of lithium toxicity, which can lead to serious complications if not addressed promptly. Assessing for signs of lithium toxicity is crucial to determine the client's condition and prevent further harm. Instructing the client to increase fluid intake (Choice A) may worsen the situation by exacerbating lithium toxicity. Suggesting the client reduce salt intake (Choice C) is not the priority when signs of toxicity are present. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately (Choice D) is important, but the initial action should be to assess the client for signs of lithium toxicity to provide immediate care.

5. A female client with anorexia nervosa is admitted to the hospital. What is the priority assessment for the nurse to perform?

• A. Assess the client's body image perception.
• B. Monitor the client's electrolyte levels.
• C. Evaluate the client's exercise habits.
• D. Assess the client's relationship with her family.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's electrolyte levels. In clients with anorexia nervosa, electrolyte imbalances can lead to serious, potentially life-threatening complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Assessing body image perception (choice A) is important but not the priority when compared to monitoring electrolyte levels. Evaluating exercise habits (choice C) and assessing the client's relationship with her family (choice D) are also important aspects of care but do not take precedence over monitoring electrolyte levels in a client with anorexia nervosa.

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