Nursing Elites

1. A client with panic disorder is prescribed sertraline (Zoloft). What is the most important information for the nurse to provide?

• A. You should take this medication at the same time every day.
• B. It may take several weeks for you to feel the full effect.
• C. This medication may cause a significant increase in appetite.
• D. You may experience dizziness, so avoid driving.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. SSRIs like sertraline may take several weeks to reach their full therapeutic effect, so it's important to inform the client to be patient with the treatment. Choice A is not the most crucial information regarding sertraline. Choice C is not a common side effect of sertraline. Choice D is important but not as crucial as informing about the delayed onset of action.

2. A client with bipolar disorder is admitted to the psychiatric unit in a manic state. What is the most therapeutic nursing intervention?

• A. Allow the client to engage in any activity they choose.
• B. Provide a structured environment with reduced stimuli.
• C. Encourage the client to express their thoughts freely.
• D. Place the client in a room with another client for socialization.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a manic state, individuals with bipolar disorder may exhibit hyperactivity, impulsivity, and reduced need for sleep. Providing a structured environment with reduced stimuli is the most therapeutic nursing intervention as it can help manage the client's excessive energy and prevent overstimulation. Choice A is incorrect as allowing the client to engage in any activity they choose may exacerbate their symptoms or lead to risky behaviors. Choice C, encouraging the client to express their thoughts freely, may not be appropriate during a manic state as it can further escalate their racing thoughts. Choice D, placing the client in a room with another client for socialization, may not be beneficial during a manic episode as it could increase stimulation and potentially lead to agitation.

3. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with haloperidol (Haldol). The LPN/LVN observes the client pacing in the hallway and appearing anxious. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Ask the client to sit down and relax.
• B. Administer a PRN dose of antipsychotic medication.
• C. Encourage the client to talk about what is making him anxious.
• D. Monitor the client for adverse reactions to the medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering a PRN dose of antipsychotic medication is the first action the nurse should take to manage symptoms of anxiety in a client being treated with haloperidol. The priority is to address the client's escalating anxiety and pacing behavior, which can be managed effectively by providing additional antipsychotic medication. Asking the client to sit down and relax (Choice A) may not be effective if the anxiety is due to inadequate medication levels. Encouraging the client to talk about what is making him anxious (Choice C) may not be beneficial in this acute situation and can be considered after addressing the immediate need for symptom management. Monitoring for adverse reactions (Choice D) is important but is not the first action to take when the client is showing signs of increasing anxiety and agitation.

4. An 86-year-old female client with Alzheimer's disease is wandering the busy halls of the extended care facility and asks the nurse, 'Where should I stand for the parade?' Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. "You can stand wherever you'd like as long as you stay safe from those in the parade."
• B. "You seem confused because of all the activity in the hall. There is no parade."
• C. "Let's go back to the activity room and see what is going on in there."
• D. "Remember, this is a nursing home, and I am here to help you."

Correct answer: C

Rationale: (C) is the best response as it redirects the client to a safer, familiar place. (A) is dismissive and does not address the client's needs directly. (B) labels the behavior, which may increase the client's anxiety. (D) is scolding and may not be helpful in the situation.

5. A nurse notes that a depressed female client has been more withdrawn and less communicative during the past two weeks. Which intervention is most important to include in the updated plan of care for this client?

• A. Engage the client in non-threatening conversations.
• B. Schedule a daily conference with the social worker.
• C. Encourage the client's family to visit more often.
• D. Encourage the client to participate in group activities.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to encourage the client to participate in group activities. Group activities can help improve social interaction and potentially reduce feelings of isolation in depressed clients. Choice A, engaging the client in non-threatening conversations, may be helpful but may not address the underlying need for social interaction that group activities can provide. Scheduling a daily conference with the social worker (Choice B) may not directly address the client's need for social engagement. Encouraging the client's family to visit more often (Choice C) is important for support but may not provide the same level of social interaction as group activities.

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