HESI LPN
CAT Exam Practice
1. During an admission assessment on an HIV positive client diagnosed with Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP), which symptoms should the nurse carefully observe the client for?
- A. Weight loss exceeding 10 percent of baseline body weight
- B. Altered mental status and tachypnea
- C. Creamy white patches in the oral cavity
- D. Normal ABGs with wet lung sounds in all lung fields
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Altered mental status and tachypnea. These symptoms are indicative of PCP and severe HIV progression. Weight loss exceeding 10 percent of baseline body weight (choice A) may be seen in HIV/AIDS but is not specific to PCP. Creamy white patches in the oral cavity (choice C) are characteristic of oral thrush, which is more commonly associated with Candida infections in HIV patients. Normal ABGs with wet lung sounds in all lung fields (choice D) would not be expected with PCP, as it typically presents with hypoxemia and diffuse bilateral infiltrates on chest imaging.
2. A client is admitted to the labor and delivery unit in early labor, and the nurse assesses the status of her contractions. The frequency of contractions is most accurately evaluated by counting the minutes and seconds in which manner?
- A. From the peak of one contraction to the peak of the next contraction
- B. From the beginning of one contraction to the end of that contraction
- C. From the beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next contraction
- D. From the end of one contraction to the beginning of the next contraction
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The frequency of contractions is measured from the beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next contraction. This timing is crucial in determining the progress of labor. Choice A, measuring from peak to peak, is incorrect as it assesses the duration between the highest points of contractions, which is not how frequency is calculated. Choice B, measuring from the beginning to the end of one contraction, is incorrect as it does not consider the start of the next contraction. Choice D, measuring from the end of one contraction to the beginning of the next contraction, is incorrect as it misses the initial onset of the following contraction.
3. When lactulose (Cephulac) 30 ml QID is prescribed for a male client with advanced cirrhosis, and he complains that it causes diarrhea, what action should the nurse take in response to the client’s statement?
- A. Explain that diarrhea is expected, but the drug reduces ammonia levels
- B. Document that the client is non-compliant with his treatment plan
- C. Tell the client to be concerned about more significant side effects of this drug
- D. Obtain a prescription for loperamide (Imodium) 4mg PO PRN diarrhea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Diarrhea is an expected side effect of lactulose when used to reduce ammonia levels in cirrhosis. It helps in decreasing the absorption of ammonia in the colon, thereby reducing its levels in the blood. Option B is incorrect because it is essential for the nurse to educate the client about the expected side effects of the medication rather than assuming non-compliance. Option C is incorrect as it instills unnecessary fear in the client by suggesting more significant side effects without addressing the current concern. Option D is incorrect as loperamide should not be given automatically for diarrhea caused by lactulose, as the diarrhea is a therapeutic effect of the medication in this context.
4. A 46-year-old male client who had a myocardial infarction 24 hours ago comes to the nurse’s station fully dressed and wanting to go home. He tells the nurse that he is feeling much better at this time. Based on this behavior, which nursing problem should the nurse formulate?
- A. Anxiety related to treatment plan
- B. Deficient knowledge of lifestyle changes
- C. Ineffective coping related to denial
- D. Decisional conflict due to stress
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Ineffective coping related to denial.' The client's behavior of wanting to go home and feeling much better shortly after a myocardial infarction indicates denial of the severity of his condition. This denial can lead to ineffective coping mechanisms, hindering his recovery and treatment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the client's behavior is not primarily driven by anxiety about the treatment plan, deficient knowledge of lifestyle changes, or decisional conflict due to stress, but rather by denial and ineffective coping mechanisms.
5. The practical nurse (PN) is assigned to work with three registered nurses (RN) who are caring for neurologically compromised clients. The client with which change in status is best to assign to the PN?
- A. Diabetic ketoacidosis whose Glasgow Coma Scale score changed from 10 to 7
- B. Subdural hematoma whose blood pressure changed from 150/80 mmHg to 170/60 mmHg
- C. Myxedema coma whose blood pressure changed from 80/50 mmHg to 70/40 mmHg
- D. Viral meningitis whose temperature changed from 101° F (38.3 C) to 102° F (38.9C)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because viral meningitis with a slight increase in temperature is less acute and complex compared to the other conditions. This change in temperature does not indicate a critical or urgent situation requiring immediate attention or intervention beyond the scope of a practical nurse. Choices A, B, and C present more significant changes in health status such as a decrease in Glasgow Coma Scale score, an increase in intracranial pressure indicated by blood pressure changes, and a significant drop in blood pressure, respectively. These changes require closer monitoring and intervention by registered nurses due to the higher acuity and complexity of care needed for these conditions.
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