HESI LPN
CAT Exam Practice Test
1. To manage the client’s constipation, which suggestions should the nurse provide? (Select all that apply)
- A. Decrease laxative use to every other day and use oil retention enemas as needed.
- B. Include oatmeal with stewed prunes for breakfast as often as possible.
- C. Increase fluid intake by keeping a water glass next to the recliner.
- D. Recommend seeking help with regular shopping and meal preparation.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Increasing fluid intake is essential for managing constipation. Adequate hydration helps soften stool and promotes bowel movements. Choices A and B are incorrect as decreasing laxative use without medical advice and suggesting specific foods like oatmeal with stewed prunes may not be suitable for every individual with constipation. Choice D is also incorrect as while seeking help with meal preparation can indirectly aid in managing constipation, the immediate need is to increase fluid intake.
2. A newborn whose mother is HIV positive is admitted to the nursery from labor and delivery. Which action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Initiate treatment with zidovudine (ZDV) syrup at 2 mg per kg
- B. Bathe the infant with dilute chlorhexidine (Hibiclens) or soap
- C. Measure and record the infant's frontal-occipital circumference
- D. Administer vitamin K (AquaMEPHYTON) IM in the vastus lateralis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct first action for a newborn potentially exposed to HIV is to bathe the infant with dilute chlorhexidine or soap. This helps reduce the risk of infection. Initiating treatment with zidovudine would be important but not the first priority. Measuring and recording the infant's frontal-occipital circumference and administering vitamin K are important tasks but are not the priority when dealing with potential HIV exposure. Immediate hygiene measures are crucial to minimize the risk of transmission.
3. A client with osteoporosis related to long-term corticosteroid therapy receives a prescription for calcium carbonate. Which client’s serum laboratory value requires intervention by the nurse?
- A. Total calcium 9 mg/dl (2.25 mmol/L SI)
- B. Creatinine 4 mg/dl (354 micromol/L SI)
- C. Phosphate 4 mg/dl (1.293 mmol/L SI)
- D. Fasting glucose 95 mg/dl (5.3 mmol/L SI)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An elevated creatinine level indicates possible renal impairment, which requires intervention. High creatinine levels are associated with decreased kidney function, and in this case, it suggests potential renal issues due to long-term corticosteroid therapy. Monitoring renal function is crucial in clients with osteoporosis on corticosteroid therapy to prevent further complications. Total calcium levels within the normal range are suitable for a client with osteoporosis receiving calcium carbonate. Phosphate and fasting glucose levels do not directly indicate renal impairment in this scenario.
4. A new mother asks the nurse if the newborn infant has an infection because the healthcare provider prescribed a blood test called the TORCH screen test. Which response should the nurse offer to the mother's inquiry?
- A. Rising titers identify the etiology of certain neuro-sensory birth defects
- B. The screen determines the risk for inherited anomalies in the newborn
- C. The test identifies the correct antibiotic to give the newborn for an infection
- D. Exposure to infections that can cross the placenta cause a positive antibody titer
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The TORCH screen test is used to detect infections that can affect the newborn by showing if there was exposure to these infections. Choice A is incorrect because the TORCH screen test is not specifically for identifying the etiology of neuro-sensory birth defects. Choice B is incorrect because the test does not determine the risk for inherited anomalies. Choice C is incorrect because the test is not used to identify the correct antibiotic for an infection, but rather to detect infections that may have affected the newborn.
5. In what sequence should the nurse prepare the dose of insulin for a client whose finger stick glucose is 210 mg/dl and is receiving a sliding scale dose of short-acting insulin before breakfast?
- A. Clean the vial's rubber stopper with an alcohol swab, withdraw the correct dose of insulin, and then inject air equal to the insulin dose into the vial.
- B. Inject air equal to the insulin dose into the vial, withdraw the correct dose of insulin, and then clean the vial's rubber stopper with an alcohol swab.
- C. Withdraw the correct dose of insulin, inject air equal to the insulin dose into the vial, and then clean the vial's rubber stopper with an alcohol swab.
- D. Clean the vial's rubber stopper with an alcohol swab, inject air equal to the insulin dose into the vial, and then withdraw the correct dose of insulin.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct sequence for preparing a dose of insulin involves ensuring proper aseptic technique. First, clean the vial's rubber stopper with an alcohol swab to prevent contamination. Second, withdraw the correct dose of insulin to be administered. Lastly, inject air equal to the insulin dose into the vial to maintain proper pressure for withdrawing the medication. This sequence ensures the medication is prepared safely and accurately. Choice A is correct as it follows this sequence. Choices B, C, and D present incorrect sequences that may compromise patient safety by not following the correct aseptic technique. Choice B injects air into the vial before withdrawing insulin, which is incorrect. Choice C reverses the order of withdrawing insulin and injecting air. Choice D withdraws the insulin before injecting air, which can affect the pressure inside the vial and lead to inaccurate dosing.
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