Nursing Elites

1. The nurse discontinues a continuous IV heparin infusion for a male client on strict bedrest and is now preparing to administer the client's first dose of enoxaparin. Prior to giving this subcutaneous injection, which assessment finding requires additional intervention by the nurse?

• A. Current lab report indicates an Aptt at 1.5 times the client's control
• B. The client states that his right calf is aching and wants pain medication
• C. The spouse is assisting the client who is shaving with an electric razor
• D. Several bruised areas are noted on the client's upper extremities bilaterally

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Bruised areas on the client's upper extremities bilaterally indicate an increased risk of bleeding, which requires careful assessment before administering enoxaparin. Bruising suggests potential issues with clotting and hemostasis, making it crucial for the nurse to further evaluate the client's bleeding risk. Choices A, B, and C do not directly relate to the assessment of bleeding risk associated with enoxaparin administration and are therefore incorrect. Choice A provides information about the client's Aptt, which is not directly relevant to assessing bleeding risk for enoxaparin. Choice B addresses pain management, and Choice C involves the client's daily activities with no direct link to the bleeding risk assessment.

2. After a motor vehicle collision, a client is admitted to the medical unit with acute adrenal insufficiency (Addisonian crisis). Which prescription should the nurse implement?

• A. Determine serum glucose levels
• B. Withhold potassium additives to IV fluids
• C. Give IV corticosteroid replacement
• D. Prepare to initiate IV vasopressors

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with acute adrenal insufficiency (Addisonian crisis) following a motor vehicle collision, the priority intervention is to administer IV corticosteroid replacement. This is crucial to manage the crisis by replacing the deficient cortisol. Determining serum glucose levels (Choice A) may be important but is not the immediate priority in this situation. Withholding potassium additives to IV fluids (Choice B) is not indicated and may exacerbate electrolyte imbalances. Initiating IV vasopressors (Choice D) is not the primary treatment for acute adrenal insufficiency and should be reserved for managing hypotension that is unresponsive to corticosteroid therapy.

3. The nurse is providing care for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which intervention is most appropriate to include in the care plan?

• A. Instruct the client to use pursed-lip breathing
• B. Recommend a high-fat, low-carbohydrate diet
• C. Limit physical activity to prevent shortness of breath
• D. Encourage the client to drink large amounts of fluids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Instruct the client to use pursed-lip breathing. Pursed-lip breathing helps improve ventilation and reduce shortness of breath in COPD clients. This technique involves inhaling slowly through the nose and exhaling through pursed lips. Choice B is incorrect because a high-fat, low-carbohydrate diet is not recommended for individuals with COPD as it can lead to weight gain and worsen respiratory function. Choice C is incorrect as limiting physical activity can lead to deconditioning and worsen COPD symptoms. Regular, moderate exercise is beneficial for individuals with COPD. Choice D is incorrect as excessive fluid intake can strain the heart in COPD clients. It is important to maintain adequate but not excessive fluid intake to prevent dehydration and maintain optimal lung function.

4. A client with acute renal failure (ARF) is admitted for uncontrolled type 1 diabetes mellitus and hyperkalemia. The nurse administers an IV dose of regular insulin per sliding scale. Which intervention is the most important for the nurse to include in this client’s plan of care?

• A. Monitor the client’s cardiac activity via telemetry.
• B. Maintain venous access with an infusion of normal saline.
• C. Assess glucose levels via finger stick every 4 to 6 hours.
• D. Evaluate hourly urine output for the return of normal renal function.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring cardiac activity is crucial in this scenario because hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac dysrhythmias, which can be life-threatening. Regular monitoring of the client’s cardiac activity via telemetry allows for early detection of any potential cardiac complications. Maintaining venous access with a normal saline infusion is important for hydration but does not address the immediate risk of cardiac dysrhythmias posed by hyperkalemia. Assessing glucose levels is essential in diabetes management but is not the priority when dealing with hyperkalemia-induced cardiac risks. Evaluating hourly urine output for the return of normal renal function is important in ARF but is not as urgent as monitoring the client's cardiac activity in the context of hyperkalemia.

5. A client with multiple sclerosis is receiving baclofen 15 mg PO three times daily. The drug is available in 10 mg tablets. How many tablets should the nurse administer in a 24-hour period? (Enter a numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest tenth)

• A. 4.5
• B.
• C.
• D.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the total dose of baclofen needed in a 24-hour period, multiply 15 mg by 3 doses, which equals 45 mg. Since the tablets are available in 10 mg strength, divide the total dose needed (45 mg) by the strength of each tablet (10 mg), which equals 4.5 tablets. Rounding off to the nearest tenth, the nurse should administer 4.5 tablets of 10 mg baclofen per day. Therefore, choice A is correct. Choices B, C, and D are irrelevant as they are not provided.

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