the nurse discontinues a continuous iv heparin infusion for a male client on strict bedrest and is now preparing to administer the clients first dose
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI CAT Exam 2022

1. The nurse discontinues a continuous IV heparin infusion for a male client on strict bedrest and is now preparing to administer the client's first dose of enoxaparin. Prior to giving this subcutaneous injection, which assessment finding requires additional intervention by the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Bruised areas on the client's upper extremities bilaterally indicate an increased risk of bleeding, which requires careful assessment before administering enoxaparin. Bruising suggests potential issues with clotting and hemostasis, making it crucial for the nurse to further evaluate the client's bleeding risk. Choices A, B, and C do not directly relate to the assessment of bleeding risk associated with enoxaparin administration and are therefore incorrect. Choice A provides information about the client's Aptt, which is not directly relevant to assessing bleeding risk for enoxaparin. Choice B addresses pain management, and Choice C involves the client's daily activities with no direct link to the bleeding risk assessment.

2. In what order should the unit manager implement interventions to address the UAP’s behavior after they leave the unit without notifying the staff?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct order for the unit manager to implement interventions to address the UAP's behavior is to first note the date and time of the behavior. Proper documentation is crucial as it provides a factual record of the incident. This documentation can be used to address the behavior effectively and to track any patterns or improvements in the future. Discussing the issue with the UAP privately (choice B) should come after documenting the behavior. Planning for scheduled break times (choice C) is unrelated to the situation described and does not address the UAP's behavior of leaving without notifying the staff. Evaluating the UAP for signs of improvement (choice D) can only be done effectively after the behavior has been addressed and interventions have been implemented.

3. After assessing an older adult with a suspected cerebrovascular accident (CVA), the nurse documents the client's right upper arm weakness and slurred speech. When the client complains of a severe headache and nausea, and the neurological assessment remains unchanged, which action should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to send the client for a computed tomography (CT) scan of the brain. A CT scan is crucial in assessing acute changes or bleeding that could influence treatment decisions in a suspected cerebrovascular accident (CVA). While addressing symptoms like headache and nausea is important, ruling out acute changes in the brain with a CT scan takes precedence in this situation. Collecting blood for coagulation times may be necessary but is not the initial priority. Obtaining a history of medication use, recent surgery, or injury is also important but not the first action to take when a CVA is suspected.

4. A school nurse is called to the soccer field because a child has a nosebleed (epistaxis). In what position should the nurse place the child?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct position for a child with a nosebleed (epistaxis) is sitting up and leaning forward. This position helps prevent blood from flowing into the throat and causing choking. Choice B, reclining with the head elevated, and choice D, lying flat on the back, are incorrect as they can cause blood to flow backward into the throat. Choice C, sitting up with the head tilted back, is also incorrect as it can lead to blood flowing down the back of the throat and potentially into the airway.

5. Following an open reduction and internal fixation of a compound fracture of the leg, a male client complains of “a tingly sensation” in his left foot. The nurse determines the client’s left pedal pulses are diminished. Based on these findings, what is the client’s greatest risk?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Compartment syndrome is a serious condition that can occur following trauma or surgery, leading to compromised neurovascular status in the affected limb. Symptoms include pain, paresthesia (tingling sensation), and diminished pulses. If left untreated, compartment syndrome can result in tissue damage and potential loss of limb function. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the neurovascular compromise associated with compartment syndrome.

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