Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving a continuous infusion of normal saline at 125 ml/hour post abdominal surgery. The client is drowsy and complaining of constant abdominal pain and a headache. Urine output is 800 ml over the past 24h with a central venous pressure of 15 mmHg. The nurse notes respiratory crackle and bounding central pulses. Vital signs: temperature 101.2°F, Heart rate 96 beats/min, Respirations 24 breaths/min, and Blood pressure 160/90 mmHg. Which interventions should the nurse implement first?

• A. Review the last administration of IV pain medication.
• B. Administer a PRN dose of acetaminophen.
• C. Decrease IV fluids to keep the vein open (KVO) rate.
• D. Calculate total intake and output.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to decrease IV fluids to the keep vein open (KVO) rate. The client is showing signs of fluid volume excess, such as drowsiness, headache, elevated CVP, crackles, bounding pulses, and increased blood pressure. Decreasing the IV fluids will help prevent further fluid overload. Reviewing the last administration of IV pain medication (Choice A) may be necessary but addressing the fluid balance issue is the priority. Administering a PRN dose of acetaminophen (Choice B) may help with the headache but does not address the underlying fluid overload. Calculating total intake and output (Choice D) is important but does not directly address the immediate issue of fluid overload and its associated symptoms.

2. Fluids are restricted to 1500 ml/day for a male client with AKI. He is frustrated and complaining of constant thirst, and the nurse discovers that the family is providing the client with additional fluids. What intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Remove all sources of liquids from the client's room
• B. Allow family to give the client a measured amount of ice chips
• C. Restrict family visiting until the client's condition is stable
• D. Provide the client with oral swabs to moisten his mouth

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should provide the client with oral swabs to moisten his mouth. This intervention helps alleviate the client's thirst without increasing fluid intake, which is essential in managing AKI. Removing all sources of liquids from the client's room (Choice A) may not address the underlying issue of thirst and could lead to increased frustration. Allowing the family to give the client ice chips (Choice B) would add to the client's fluid intake, contradicting the restriction. Restricting family visiting (Choice C) is not necessary and does not directly address the client's thirst.

3. A client is admitted to the emergency department with symptoms of arm numbness, chest pain, and nausea/vomiting. The examining healthcare provider believes that the client has experienced an acute myocardial infarction (AMI) within the past three hours and would like to initiate tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) therapy. Which client history findings contraindicate the use of tPA?

• A. Treats hypoglycemia with an oral hypoglycemic agent.
• B. Had a cerebrovascular hemorrhage 2 months ago.
• C. Current age 65, father died of MI at 55.
• D. Report of being intolerant of medication that contains aspirin.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A history of cerebrovascular hemorrhage is a contraindication for tPA therapy due to the risk of bleeding. Choice A is incorrect because treating hypoglycemia with an oral hypoglycemic agent is not a contraindication for tPA therapy. Choice C is incorrect as age and family history of MI do not contraindicate the use of tPA. Choice D is incorrect as being intolerant of medication containing aspirin is not a contraindication for tPA therapy.

4. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the heparin?

• A. Complete blood count (CBC)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Prothrombin time (PT)
• D. International normalized ratio (INR)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). This test is used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. A complete blood count (CBC) (choice A) is not specific for monitoring heparin therapy. Prothrombin time (PT) (choice C) and International normalized ratio (INR) (choice D) are more commonly used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin.

5. A client who has a history of hyperthyroidism was initially admitted with lethargy and confusion. Which additional finding warrants the most immediate action by the nurse?

• A. Facial puffiness and periorbital edema
• B. Hematocrit of 30%
• C. Cold and dry skin
• D. Further decline in LOC

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A further decline in LOC can indicate severe complications and requires immediate attention. This change may signify worsening neurological status, which could lead to life-threatening consequences if not addressed promptly. Choices A, B, and C may also be concerning in a client with a history of hyperthyroidism, but a further decline in LOC takes priority due to its potential for rapid deterioration and the need for urgent intervention.

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