Nursing Elites

1. How are type IV hypersensitivity reactions different from all other types (I, II, or III) of hypersensitivity reactions?

• A. They involve antigen-antibody complexes.
• B. They are mediated by T cells and do not involve antibodies.
• C. They result in immediate allergic reactions.
• D. They are the least severe form of hypersensitivity.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Type IV hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by T cells and cytokine release, leading to delayed reactions, unlike types I, II, and III, which involve antibodies. Choice A is incorrect because type IV reactions do not involve antigen-antibody complexes. Choice C is incorrect as type IV reactions do not result in immediate allergic reactions. Choice D is incorrect as type IV reactions are not the least severe form of hypersensitivity; in fact, they are known to cause significant tissue damage and inflammation.

2. A healthcare worker with no known exposure to tuberculosis has received a Mantoux tuberculosis skin test. The nurse's assessment of the test after 62 hours indicates 5mm of erythema without induration. Which is the best initial nursing action?

• A. Review the healthcare worker's history for possible exposure to TB.
• B. Instruct the healthcare worker to return for a repeat test in 1 week.
• C. Refer the healthcare worker to a healthcare provider for isoniazid (INH) therapy.
• D. Document negative results in the healthcare worker's medical record.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A Mantoux tuberculosis skin test without induration is considered negative. In this case, with 5mm of erythema and no induration, the result is negative, indicating no current infection. The best initial nursing action is to document these negative results in the healthcare worker's medical record. Reviewing the history for possible exposure to TB is unnecessary as the test result is negative. Instructing the healthcare worker to return for a repeat test or referring for INH therapy is not warranted when the test is negative.

3. A young client who is being taught how to use an inhaler for symptoms of asthma tells the nurse about the intention to use the inhaler but plans to continue smoking cigarettes. In evaluating the client’s response, what is the best initial action by the nurse?

• A. Explain the risks of smoking with asthma.
• B. Revise the plan of care.
• C. Encourage the client to reduce smoking gradually.
• D. Provide resources for smoking cessation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best initial action by the nurse is to revise the plan of care. This is necessary to address the client's intention to continue smoking and ensure that appropriate support and education are provided. Choice A is not the best initial action as the client is already aware of the risks of smoking with asthma. Choice C might not be effective as the client's intention to continue smoking poses a significant risk to their health. Choice D, providing resources for smoking cessation, is important but revising the plan of care should come first to address the immediate concern.

4. The parents of a child suffering from depression ask the nurse what causes depression in children. Which answer is an appropriate response by the nurse?

• A. The causes of major depression are unknown.
• B. Major affective disorders in parents increase depression in children.
• C. Boys are more likely than girls to be depressed.
• D. The prevalence rate is higher in prepubescent children.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because while the exact causes of depression in children are not fully understood, research indicates that children are more likely to experience depression if their parents have a major affective disorder. Choice A is incorrect because it suggests that the causes of major depression are entirely unknown, which is not accurate. Choice C is incorrect as there is no conclusive evidence that boys are more likely than girls to be depressed. Choice D is incorrect as the prevalence rate of depression is not necessarily higher in prepubescent children specifically.

5. Laboratory findings indicate that a client’s serum potassium level is 2.5 mEq/L. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Administer potassium supplements orally.
• B. Increase the client's dietary potassium intake.
• C. Inform the healthcare provider of the need for potassium replacement.
• D. Monitor the client's ECG continuously.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 2.5 mEq/L is critically low, indicating severe hypokalemia. In this situation, it is essential for the nurse to inform the healthcare provider promptly about the need for potassium replacement. Administering potassium supplements orally or increasing dietary potassium intake is not appropriate in cases of critically low potassium levels as immediate and precise replacement is necessary. Monitoring the client's ECG continuously is important in severe cases of hypokalemia, but the priority action should be to inform the healthcare provider for further management and treatment.

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