how are type iv hypersensitivity reactions different from all other types i ii or iii of hypersensitivity reactions
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Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI Quizlet

1. How are type IV hypersensitivity reactions different from all other types (I, II, or III) of hypersensitivity reactions?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Type IV hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by T cells and cytokine release, leading to delayed reactions, unlike types I, II, and III, which involve antibodies. Choice A is incorrect because type IV reactions do not involve antigen-antibody complexes. Choice C is incorrect as type IV reactions do not result in immediate allergic reactions. Choice D is incorrect as type IV reactions are not the least severe form of hypersensitivity; in fact, they are known to cause significant tissue damage and inflammation.

2. Which signs/symptoms would be considered classical signs of meningeal irritation?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Positive Brudzinski sign, positive Kernig sign, and photophobia are considered classical signs of meningeal irritation. The Kernig sign is positive when the leg is extended at the knee and then raised, resulting in pain and resistance. The Brudzinski sign is positive when flexing the neck causes flexion of the hips and knees due to meningeal irritation. Photophobia, or sensitivity to light, is a common symptom due to meningeal inflammation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not include the classic signs associated with meningeal irritation.

3. A client with chronic heart failure is experiencing dyspnea and has an oxygen saturation of 88%. Which position is most appropriate to improve oxygenation?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: High Fowler's position. High Fowler's position is the most appropriate for a client with chronic heart failure experiencing dyspnea and low oxygen saturation. This position helps improve lung expansion and oxygenation by maximizing chest expansion and allowing better ventilation. Choice A, supine with legs elevated, may worsen dyspnea by reducing lung expansion. Choice C, prone with pillows under the chest, is not suitable for a client experiencing dyspnea as it may further compromise breathing. Choice D, side-lying with head flat, does not facilitate optimal lung expansion and is not the best choice for improving oxygenation in this scenario.

4. A male client with heart failure calls the clinic and reports that he cannot put his shoes on because they are too tight. Which additional information should the nurse obtain?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Has his weight changed in the last several days?' Sudden weight gain can indicate fluid retention, which is a common symptom of worsening heart failure. The inability to put on tight shoes can be due to fluid retention leading to swelling in the feet and ankles. Choices A, C, and D do not directly address the potential fluid retention issue and are less relevant in this scenario.

5. The nurse is caring for a newborn with a myelomeningocele. Before surgery, what should the nursing interventions include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention before surgery for a newborn with a myelomeningocele is to cover the lesion with a sterile, saline-soaked gauze. This helps protect the exposed spinal cord and meninges from infection and damage. Choice A is incorrect because leaving the lesion uncovered can increase the risk of infection. Choice C is incorrect because applying lotion can introduce contaminants to the lesion. Choice D is incorrect because covering the lesion with a dry gauze can lead to adherence of the gauze to the wound, causing trauma upon removal and disrupting the healing process.

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