Nursing Elites

1. How are type IV hypersensitivity reactions different from all other types (I, II, or III) of hypersensitivity reactions?

• A. They involve antigen-antibody complexes.
• B. They are mediated by T cells and do not involve antibodies.
• C. They result in immediate allergic reactions.
• D. They are the least severe form of hypersensitivity.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Type IV hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by T cells and cytokine release, leading to delayed reactions, unlike types I, II, and III, which involve antibodies. Choice A is incorrect because type IV reactions do not involve antigen-antibody complexes. Choice C is incorrect as type IV reactions do not result in immediate allergic reactions. Choice D is incorrect as type IV reactions are not the least severe form of hypersensitivity; in fact, they are known to cause significant tissue damage and inflammation.

2. The wife of a client with Parkinson's disease expresses concern because her husband has lost so much weight. Which teaching is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. Invite friends over regularly to share meal times
• B. Encourage the client to drink clear liquids between meals
• C. Coach the client to make an intentional effort to swallow
• D. Talk to the healthcare provider about prescribing an appetite stimulant

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best teaching for the nurse to provide is to invite friends over regularly to share meal times. This can help in making meal times more enjoyable for the client with Parkinson's disease, potentially encouraging him to eat more. Encouraging clear liquids between meals (choice B) may not address the underlying issue of weight loss. Coaching the client to make an intentional effort to swallow (choice C) may not be effective if the weight loss is due to other factors related to Parkinson's disease. While prescribing an appetite stimulant (choice D) could be an option, it is usually recommended to explore non-pharmacological interventions first, making choice A the most appropriate initial teaching intervention.

3. A client with liver cirrhosis is at risk for developing hepatic encephalopathy. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Kussmaul respirations
• B. Asterixis (flapping tremor)
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Asterixis, also known as a flapping tremor, is a common sign of hepatic encephalopathy, indicating neurological dysfunction due to liver failure. Kussmaul respirations (option A) are associated with metabolic acidosis, which is not a typical manifestation of hepatic encephalopathy. Bradycardia (option C) and hypertension (option D) are not typically associated with hepatic encephalopathy; in fact, hepatic encephalopathy is more commonly associated with alterations in mental status, neuromuscular abnormalities, and changes in behavior.

4. In planning nursing care for a bedfast client, which factor is most likely to contribute to the development of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in an immobile client?

• A. Atherosclerotic plaque formation.
• B. Stasis of blood flow.
• C. Endothelial damage.
• D. Atherosclerotic vessel changes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Stasis of blood flow. Stasis of blood flow in immobile clients increases the risk of DVT, as lack of movement can cause blood to pool and clot. Atherosclerotic plaque formation (choice A) and atherosclerotic vessel changes (choice D) are more related to arterial diseases rather than DVT. Endothelial damage (choice C) can contribute to the development of DVT, but in an immobile client, stasis of blood flow is the most significant factor.

5. A client with rheumatoid arthritis has elevated serum rheumatoid factor. Which interpretation of this finding should the nurse make?

• A. Evidence of spread of the disease to the kidney.
• B. Confirmation of the autoimmune disease process.
• C. Representative of a decline in the client's condition.
• D. Indication of the onset of joint degeneration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct interpretation of elevated serum rheumatoid factor in a client with rheumatoid arthritis is confirmation of the autoimmune disease process. Rheumatoid factor is a marker for autoimmune activity, thus confirming the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. Choice A is incorrect as elevated rheumatoid factor does not specifically indicate spread of the disease to the kidney. Choice C is incorrect as elevated rheumatoid factor does not always represent a decline in the client's condition. Choice D is incorrect as elevated rheumatoid factor is not an indication of the onset of joint degeneration, but rather points towards autoimmune activity.

Similar Questions