Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is evaluating a client who has had a mastectomy and is experiencing pain and swelling in the arm on the affected side. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Assess for signs of lymphedema
• B. Encourage the client to perform arm exercises
• C. Provide pain relief through medication
• D. Recommend wearing a compression sleeve

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing for signs of lymphedema is crucial in this situation as it is a common complication following mastectomy. Lymphedema presents as swelling and pain in the affected arm due to compromised lymphatic drainage. By assessing for lymphedema, the nurse can identify the condition early and implement appropriate interventions such as compression sleeves, manual lymphatic drainage, and exercises. Encouraging arm exercises (Choice B) may exacerbate the symptoms if lymphedema is present. While providing pain relief through medication (Choice C) is important, assessing for the underlying cause of pain and swelling takes precedence. Recommending a compression sleeve (Choice D) may be suitable but should come after a thorough assessment for lymphedema to ensure the most effective management plan.

2. After a motor vehicle collision, a client is admitted to the medical unit with acute adrenal insufficiency (Addisonian crisis). Which prescription should the nurse implement?

• A. Determine serum glucose levels
• B. Withhold potassium additives to IV fluids
• C. Give IV corticosteroid replacement
• D. Prepare to initiate IV vasopressors

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with acute adrenal insufficiency (Addisonian crisis) following a motor vehicle collision, the priority intervention is to administer IV corticosteroid replacement. This is crucial to manage the crisis by replacing the deficient cortisol. Determining serum glucose levels (Choice A) may be important but is not the immediate priority in this situation. Withholding potassium additives to IV fluids (Choice B) is not indicated and may exacerbate electrolyte imbalances. Initiating IV vasopressors (Choice D) is not the primary treatment for acute adrenal insufficiency and should be reserved for managing hypotension that is unresponsive to corticosteroid therapy.

3. A 5-week-old infant who developed projectile vomiting over the last two weeks is diagnosed with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis. Which intervention should the nurse plan to implement?

• A. Instruct the mother to give the child sugar water only
• B. Maintain intravenous fluid therapy per prescription
• C. Provide Pedialyte feedings via the nasogastric tube
• D. Offer the infant Pedialyte feedings every 2 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Maintaining intravenous fluid therapy is crucial for managing dehydration and electrolyte imbalances caused by the vomiting in hypertrophic pyloric stenosis. Instructing the mother to give sugar water only (Choice A) is not appropriate as it does not address the dehydration and electrolyte imbalances adequately. Providing Pedialyte feedings via the nasogastric tube (Choice C) may not be sufficient to manage the severe fluid and electrolyte losses caused by the condition. Offering Pedialyte feedings every 2 hours (Choice D) may not be as effective as maintaining intravenous fluid therapy, especially in cases where rapid rehydration is necessary.

4. A 17-year-old adolescent is brought to the emergency department by both parents because the adolescent has been coughing and running a fever with flu-like symptoms for the past 24 hours. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Obtain a chest X-ray per protocol.
• B. Place a mask on the client’s face.
• C. Assess the client’s temperature.
• D. Determine the client’s blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention for the nurse to implement first is to place a mask on the client's face. This is crucial to prevent the potential spread of infectious agents to others in the emergency department, considering the presenting symptoms of coughing and fever. Placing a mask helps in containing respiratory secretions and reducing the risk of airborne transmission. Assessing the client’s temperature or blood pressure can be done after ensuring infection control measures. Obtaining a chest X-ray would be a secondary intervention once immediate infection control is addressed.

5. Two days after an abdominal hysterectomy, an elderly female with diabetes has a syncopal episode. The nurse determines that her vital signs are within normal limits, but her blood sugar is 325 mg/dL or 18.04 mmol/L (SI). What intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer regular insulin per sliding scale
• B. Cancel the client's dinner tray
• C. Give the client 4 ounces (120 mL) of orange juice
• D. Administer the next scheduled dose of metformin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this case, the nurse should implement the intervention of administering regular insulin per sliding scale. High blood sugar levels, as indicated by a reading of 325 mg/dL, require insulin administration to prevent complications such as hyperglycemia. Canceling the client's dinner tray (choice B) would not address the immediate need to lower the blood sugar level. Giving the client orange juice (choice C) might further increase the blood sugar level as it contains sugar. Administering the next scheduled dose of metformin (choice D) is not appropriate as metformin is not typically used for acute management of high blood sugar levels.

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