HESI LPN
HESI CAT
1. The nurse is evaluating a client who has had a mastectomy and is experiencing pain and swelling in the arm on the affected side. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Assess for signs of lymphedema
- B. Encourage the client to perform arm exercises
- C. Provide pain relief through medication
- D. Recommend wearing a compression sleeve
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Assessing for signs of lymphedema is crucial in this situation as it is a common complication following mastectomy. Lymphedema presents as swelling and pain in the affected arm due to compromised lymphatic drainage. By assessing for lymphedema, the nurse can identify the condition early and implement appropriate interventions such as compression sleeves, manual lymphatic drainage, and exercises. Encouraging arm exercises (Choice B) may exacerbate the symptoms if lymphedema is present. While providing pain relief through medication (Choice C) is important, assessing for the underlying cause of pain and swelling takes precedence. Recommending a compression sleeve (Choice D) may be suitable but should come after a thorough assessment for lymphedema to ensure the most effective management plan.
2. In what order should the nurse assess a lethargic one-hour-old infant brought to the nursery?
- A. Heel stick
- B. Respirations
- C. Heart rate
- D. Temperature
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When assessing a lethargic one-hour-old infant, the nurse should prioritize assessing the most critical parameters first. Temperature and heart rate are vital signs that provide immediate information about the infant's well-being. Therefore, the correct order of assessment should be temperature, heart rate, respirations, and then a heel stick. Temperature is crucial to determine if the infant is hypothermic or hyperthermic, while heart rate gives insight into the circulatory system's function. Respirations follow to evaluate the infant's breathing pattern. Lastly, the heel stick is important for certain screenings but is not as urgent as evaluating temperature and heart rate in a lethargic infant.
3. A man calls the hospital and asks to talk with the nurse about his girlfriend who was extremely intoxicated on admission and is receiving services for detoxification. He knows that she is in the facility and asks the nurse about her condition. What is the nurse's best response?
- A. ''I can only report that the client is in satisfactory condition.''
- B. ''Let me give you the telephone number for her room.''
- C. ''I cannot acknowledge if a client is here or not.''
- D. ''I will have the nurse who is working with her call you.''
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse must adhere to confidentiality rules and cannot confirm the presence or condition of the client. Choice A is incorrect because disclosing the client's condition breaches confidentiality. Choice B is wrong as it reveals the client's room number, which is also a breach of confidentiality. Choice D is not the best response as it involves sharing information about the client without verifying the caller's identity or relationship to the client.
4. The nurse is assessing an infant with pyloric stenosis. Which pathophysiological mechanism is the most likely consequence of this infant’s clinical picture?
- A. Metabolic acidosis
- B. Metabolic alkalosis
- C. Respiratory alkalosis
- D. Respiratory acidosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Pyloric stenosis often leads to metabolic alkalosis due to the loss of gastric acid from vomiting. Metabolic acidosis would not be expected in pyloric stenosis as there is no excessive acid accumulation. Respiratory alkalosis and respiratory acidosis are not typically associated with pyloric stenosis, making them incorrect choices.
5. A client with osteoporosis related to long-term corticosteroid therapy receives a prescription for calcium carbonate. Which client’s serum laboratory value requires intervention by the nurse?
- A. Total calcium 9 mg/dl (2.25 mmol/L SI)
- B. Creatinine 4 mg/dl (354 micromol/L SI)
- C. Phosphate 4 mg/dl (1.293 mmol/L SI)
- D. Fasting glucose 95 mg/dl (5.3 mmol/L SI)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An elevated creatinine level indicates possible renal impairment, which requires intervention. High creatinine levels are associated with decreased kidney function, and in this case, it suggests potential renal issues due to long-term corticosteroid therapy. Monitoring renal function is crucial in clients with osteoporosis on corticosteroid therapy to prevent further complications. Total calcium levels within the normal range are suitable for a client with osteoporosis receiving calcium carbonate. Phosphate and fasting glucose levels do not directly indicate renal impairment in this scenario.
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