HESI LPN
CAT Exam Practice Test
1. An older male client is admitted to the mental health unit with a sudden onset of global disorientation and is continuously conversing with his mother, who died 50 years ago. The nurse reviews the multiple prescriptions the client is currently taking and assesses his urine specimen, which is cloudy, dark yellow, and has a foul odor. These findings suggest that this client is experiencing which condition?
- A. Psychotic episode
- B. Dementia
- C. Delirium
- D. Depression
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, delirium. The sudden onset of global disorientation along with cloudy, dark yellow urine with a foul odor are indicative of delirium. Delirium is an acute condition characterized by a fluctuating disturbance in awareness and cognition. In this case, the symptoms are suggestive of an underlying physiological cause, such as infection or medication side effects. Choice A, psychotic episode, is less likely as the symptoms are more in line with delirium than a primary psychotic disorder. Choice B, dementia, is a chronic and progressive condition, not typically presenting with sudden onset disorientation. Choice D, depression, does not align with the acute cognitive changes and urine abnormalities described in the scenario.
2. A male client who fell into the lake while fishing and was submerged for about 3 min was successfully resuscitated by his friends. He was brought to the Emergency Department for evaluation and was admitted for a 24-hour uneventful hospital stay. What follow-up instruction should the nurse give?
- A. Avoid smoke-filled environments
- B. Seek medical care promptly if a fever develops
- C. Increase oral fluids if a cough becomes productive
- D. Schedule frequent rest periods
Correct answer: B
Rationale: After being submerged in water, the client should be instructed to seek medical care promptly if a fever develops since complications may arise later. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to the potential complications from submersion in water and are therefore incorrect. Avoiding smoke-filled environments, increasing oral fluids for a productive cough, and scheduling frequent rest periods are not the priority concerns in this scenario.
3. A 20-year-old male client is diagnosed with Ewing’s sarcoma following an examination for a knee injury. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide the client?
- A. Take analgesics regularly to manage pain
- B. Notify the healthcare provider if the swelling worsens
- C. Avoid weight-bearing on the affected knee until the injury heals
- D. Seek treatment for the sarcoma immediately
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most crucial instruction for the nurse to provide the client is to seek treatment for the sarcoma immediately. Ewing's sarcoma is a type of cancer that necessitates prompt and aggressive treatment for the best possible outcome. While managing pain (Choice A) and monitoring swelling (Choice B) are important, addressing the underlying sarcoma is the priority. Instructing the client to avoid weight-bearing (Choice C) is not directly related to the treatment of Ewing's sarcoma and may not be the most critical instruction at this point.
4. A 17-year-old adolescent is brought to the emergency department by both parents because the adolescent has been coughing and running a fever with flu-like symptoms for the past 24 hours. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Obtain a chest X-ray per protocol.
- B. Place a mask on the client’s face.
- C. Assess the client’s temperature.
- D. Determine the client’s blood pressure
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention for the nurse to implement first is to place a mask on the client's face. This is crucial to prevent the potential spread of infectious agents to others in the emergency department, considering the presenting symptoms of coughing and fever. Placing a mask helps in containing respiratory secretions and reducing the risk of airborne transmission. Assessing the client’s temperature or blood pressure can be done after ensuring infection control measures. Obtaining a chest X-ray would be a secondary intervention once immediate infection control is addressed.
5. A client is admitted for an exacerbation of heart failure (HF) and is being treated with diuretics for fluid volume excess. In planning nursing care, which interventions should the nurse include? (Select all that apply)
- A. Encourage oral fluid intake of 3,000 ml/day
- B. Observe for evidence of hypokalemia
- C. Teach the client how to restrict dietary sodium
- D. Monitor PTT, PT, and INR lab values
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct interventions to include when a client with heart failure is being treated with diuretics for fluid volume excess are to observe for evidence of hypokalemia. Diuretics can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. Monitoring for this electrolyte imbalance is crucial. Encouraging oral fluid intake of 3,000 ml/day may exacerbate fluid volume excess in a client with heart failure. Teaching the client how to restrict dietary sodium is important in managing heart failure, but it is not directly related to the use of diuretics for fluid volume excess. Monitoring PTT, PT, and INR lab values is not typically associated with diuretic therapy for heart failure but rather with anticoagulant therapy.
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