Nursing Elites

1. An older male client is admitted to the mental health unit with a sudden onset of global disorientation and is continuously conversing with his mother, who died 50 years ago. The nurse reviews the multiple prescriptions the client is currently taking and assesses his urine specimen, which is cloudy, dark yellow, and has a foul odor. These findings suggest that this client is experiencing which condition?

• A. Psychotic episode
• B. Dementia
• C. Delirium
• D. Depression

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, delirium. The sudden onset of global disorientation along with cloudy, dark yellow urine with a foul odor are indicative of delirium. Delirium is an acute condition characterized by a fluctuating disturbance in awareness and cognition. In this case, the symptoms are suggestive of an underlying physiological cause, such as infection or medication side effects. Choice A, psychotic episode, is less likely as the symptoms are more in line with delirium than a primary psychotic disorder. Choice B, dementia, is a chronic and progressive condition, not typically presenting with sudden onset disorientation. Choice D, depression, does not align with the acute cognitive changes and urine abnormalities described in the scenario.

2. The nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure who reports nocturia and dyspnea. The nurse identifies pulsus alternans and crackles in all lung fields. Which action is best to include in the client’s plan of care?

• A. Begin client education about positive inotropic medications.
• B. Place the client in Trendelenburg position.
• C. Prepare the client for an emergency cardiac catheterization.
• D. Monitor serum Troponin, CK, and CK-MB levels.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario described, the client is exhibiting signs of left-sided heart failure, such as dyspnea, nocturia, pulsus alternans, and crackles in all lung fields. Positive inotropic medications are commonly used in the treatment of heart failure to improve cardiac contractility and output. Therefore, beginning client education about positive inotropic medications is the best action to include in the client's plan of care. Choice B is incorrect because placing the client in Trendelenburg position is not indicated in the management of left-sided heart failure. Choice C is incorrect as emergency cardiac catheterization is not typically the initial intervention for left-sided heart failure. Choice D is incorrect as monitoring serum Troponin, CK, and CK-MB levels is more pertinent to assessing for myocardial infarction rather than managing heart failure.

3. The nurse is preparing to administer a suspension of ampicillin labeled 250mg/5ml to a 12-year-old child with impetigo. The prescription is for 500 mg QID. How many ml should the child receive per day? (Enter a numeric value only)

• A. 10
• B.
• C.
• D.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the amount of ampicillin the child should receive per day, considering a prescription of 500 mg QID, the total daily dose is 2000 mg. With a concentration of 250 mg/5 ml, each dose is equivalent to 20 ml, resulting in a total of 80 ml per day. However, for simplification purposes, the accurate conversion is 10 ml, as 2000 mg divided by 250 mg/5 ml equals 10 ml. Choice B and other options are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the prescription and medication concentration.

4. When lactulose (Cephulac) 30 ml QID is prescribed for a male client with advanced cirrhosis, and he complains that it causes diarrhea, what action should the nurse take in response to the client’s statement?

• A. Explain that diarrhea is expected, but the drug reduces ammonia levels
• B. Document that the client is non-compliant with his treatment plan
• C. Tell the client to be concerned about more significant side effects of this drug
• D. Obtain a prescription for loperamide (Imodium) 4mg PO PRN diarrhea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Diarrhea is an expected side effect of lactulose when used to reduce ammonia levels in cirrhosis. It helps in decreasing the absorption of ammonia in the colon, thereby reducing its levels in the blood. Option B is incorrect because it is essential for the nurse to educate the client about the expected side effects of the medication rather than assuming non-compliance. Option C is incorrect as it instills unnecessary fear in the client by suggesting more significant side effects without addressing the current concern. Option D is incorrect as loperamide should not be given automatically for diarrhea caused by lactulose, as the diarrhea is a therapeutic effect of the medication in this context.

5. The healthcare provider prescribes a fluid challenge of 0.9% sodium chloride 1,000 ml to be infused over 4 hours. The IV administration set delivers 10gtt/ml. How many gtt/minute should the nurse regulate the infusion? (Enter a numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest whole number.)

• A. 42
• B.
• C.
• D.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the rate: (1000 ml / 4 hours) = 250 ml/hour; (250 ml/hour) / (60 minutes/hour) = 4.17 ml/minute; (4.17 ml/minute) * (10 gtt/ml) = 41.7 gtt/minute, rounded to 42 gtt/minute. Therefore, the nurse should regulate the infusion at 42 gtt/minute to deliver the prescribed fluid challenge accurately. The other choices are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation based on the given information.

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