Nursing Elites

1. An older male client is admitted to the mental health unit with a sudden onset of global disorientation and is continuously conversing with his mother, who died 50 years ago. The nurse reviews the multiple prescriptions the client is currently taking and assesses his urine specimen, which is cloudy, dark yellow, and has a foul odor. These findings suggest that this client is experiencing which condition?

• A. Psychotic episode
• B. Dementia
• C. Delirium
• D. Depression

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, delirium. The sudden onset of global disorientation along with cloudy, dark yellow urine with a foul odor are indicative of delirium. Delirium is an acute condition characterized by a fluctuating disturbance in awareness and cognition. In this case, the symptoms are suggestive of an underlying physiological cause, such as infection or medication side effects. Choice A, psychotic episode, is less likely as the symptoms are more in line with delirium than a primary psychotic disorder. Choice B, dementia, is a chronic and progressive condition, not typically presenting with sudden onset disorientation. Choice D, depression, does not align with the acute cognitive changes and urine abnormalities described in the scenario.

2. After assessing an older adult with a suspected cerebrovascular accident (CVA), the nurse documents the client's right upper arm weakness and slurred speech. When the client complains of a severe headache and nausea, and the neurological assessment remains unchanged, which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer an oral analgesic with antiemetic
• B. Collect blood for coagulation times
• C. Send the client for a computed tomography scan of the brain
• D. Obtain a history of medication use, recent surgery, or injury

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to send the client for a computed tomography (CT) scan of the brain. A CT scan is crucial in assessing acute changes or bleeding that could influence treatment decisions in a suspected cerebrovascular accident (CVA). While addressing symptoms like headache and nausea is important, ruling out acute changes in the brain with a CT scan takes precedence in this situation. Collecting blood for coagulation times may be necessary but is not the initial priority. Obtaining a history of medication use, recent surgery, or injury is also important but not the first action to take when a CVA is suspected.

3. After removing an IV that became infiltrated in the client’s left forearm, which site should the nurse select as a possible site to insert another IV catheter?

• A. Right hand
• B. Right forearm
• C. Left hand
• D. Right subclavian

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Right hand. When an IV becomes infiltrated in the client's left forearm, it is essential to avoid the same side due to the risk of complications. Therefore, the right hand is a suitable alternative site for IV insertion. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choosing the right forearm (B) would still be on the same side, which increases the risk of complications. The left hand (C) is not a preferred option immediately after an infiltration in the left forearm. The right subclavian (D) is an invasive site typically reserved for central line placement and not a first-line choice for IV insertion.

4. The nurse is obtaining the medical histories of new clients at a community-based primary care clinic. Which individual has the highest risk for experiencing elder abuse?

• A. A 69-year-old widowed female who lives alone and volunteers at a school
• B. A 95-year-old ambulatory male who resides in a nursing home in a small town
• C. A 78-year-old female on a fixed income who lives with her relatives
• D. An 81-year-old male with diabetes who lives with his wife of 52 years

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elder abuse risk is higher in individuals who live with relatives and are on a fixed income as these factors can contribute to vulnerability. Living with relatives may expose the individual to potential abusive situations within the family dynamics. Additionally, being on a fixed income may limit financial independence and increase dependency on others, potentially leading to financial abuse. The other options, such as living alone and volunteering, residing in a nursing home, or living with a long-term spouse, do not inherently pose the same level of risk factors for elder abuse as living with relatives on a fixed income.

5. An older male client with a history of type 1 diabetes has not felt well for the past few days and arrives at the clinic with abdominal cramping and vomiting. He is lethargic, moderately confused, and cannot remember when he took his last dose of insulin or ate last. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. obtain a serum potassium level
• B. administer the client's usual dose of insulin
• C. assess pupillary response to light
• D. Start an intravenous (IV) infusion of normal saline

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering IV fluids is crucial to address potential dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, especially if the client is unable to provide a clear history. Starting an IV infusion of normal saline will help rehydrate the client and address any electrolyte imbalances, which are common in clients with diabetes experiencing symptoms like abdominal cramping and vomiting. Obtaining a serum potassium level can be important but is not the priority when the client is showing signs of dehydration and confusion. Administering insulin should only be done after addressing hydration and electrolyte status. Assessing pupillary response to light is not the most critical action in this situation compared to addressing dehydration and potential electrolyte imbalances.

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