a client with multiple sclerosis is receiving baclofen 15 mg po three times daily the drug is available in 10 mg tablets how many tablets should the n
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI CAT Exam

1. A client with multiple sclerosis is receiving baclofen 15 mg PO three times daily. The drug is available in 10 mg tablets. How many tablets should the nurse administer in a 24-hour period? (Enter a numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest tenth)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the total dose of baclofen needed in a 24-hour period, multiply 15 mg by 3 doses, which equals 45 mg. Since the tablets are available in 10 mg strength, divide the total dose needed (45 mg) by the strength of each tablet (10 mg), which equals 4.5 tablets. Rounding off to the nearest tenth, the nurse should administer 4.5 tablets of 10 mg baclofen per day. Therefore, choice A is correct. Choices B, C, and D are irrelevant as they are not provided.

2. Two weeks following a Billroth II (gastrojejunostomy), a client develops nausea, diarrhea, and diaphoresis after every meal. When the nurse develops a teaching plan for this client, which expected outcome statement is the most relevant?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The symptoms described are indicative of dumping syndrome, a common complication following a Billroth II procedure. Dumping syndrome presents with symptoms such as nausea, diarrhea, and diaphoresis after meals. To manage these symptoms effectively, the client should opt for small, frequent meals and avoid consuming fluids along with meals. Choice A is inaccurate because antacid use does not directly address the symptoms of dumping syndrome. Choice C is irrelevant as stress reduction techniques are not the primary intervention for dumping syndrome. Choice D is unrelated to the symptoms experienced by the client, making it an inappropriate choice.

3. Based on the information provided in this client’s medical record during labor, which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Turning the client to the right lateral position is essential as it can improve fetal oxygenation and uterine blood flow, promoting better labor outcomes. This intervention helps relieve pressure on blood vessels, enhancing blood flow to the placenta and improving oxygen supply to the fetus. Applying oxygen at a specific rate may not address the underlying issue of compromised blood flow and oxygenation. Stopping the oxytocin infusion is not the priority unless medically indicated as it can affect labor progression. While monitoring the progress of labor is important, actively addressing the compromised fetal oxygenation and uterine blood flow by changing the client's position takes precedence in this scenario.

4. The nurse is preparing to send a client to the cardiac catheterization lab for an angioplasty. Which client report is most important for the nurse to explore further prior to the start of the procedure?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Left chest wall pain could indicate ongoing cardiac issues or instability, which needs to be assessed before proceeding with the procedure. This pain could be related to the heart and may suggest a potential risk during the angioplasty. Options A, B, and D do not directly relate to cardiac complications during the procedure, making them less urgent for immediate assessment. Fear of confined spaces, drinking water, and facial swelling after eating crab are not immediate risks to the client's safety in the context of a cardiac catheterization procedure.

5. A client is receiving lidocaine IV at 3 mg/minute. The pharmacy dispenses a 500 ml IV solution of normal saline (NS) with 2 grams of lidocaine. The nurse should regulate the infusion pump to deliver how many ml/hour?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The infusion rate is calculated based on the concentration of lidocaine and the prescribed rate of infusion. First, convert lidocaine's weight to milligrams (2 grams = 2000 mg). Then, use the formula: (Total volume in ml * dose in mg) / 60 minutes. For this case, (500 ml * 2000 mg) / 60 minutes = 45 ml/hour. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the provided concentration and infusion rate.

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