HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam
1. A client with multiple sclerosis is receiving baclofen 15 mg PO three times daily. The drug is available in 10 mg tablets. How many tablets should the nurse administer in a 24-hour period? (Enter a numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest tenth)
- A. 4.5
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the total dose of baclofen needed in a 24-hour period, multiply 15 mg by 3 doses, which equals 45 mg. Since the tablets are available in 10 mg strength, divide the total dose needed (45 mg) by the strength of each tablet (10 mg), which equals 4.5 tablets. Rounding off to the nearest tenth, the nurse should administer 4.5 tablets of 10 mg baclofen per day. Therefore, choice A is correct. Choices B, C, and D are irrelevant as they are not provided.
2. A client with endometrial carcinoma is receiving brachytherapy and has radioactive Cesium loaded in a vaginal applicator. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Wear a dosimeter film badge when in the client’s room
- B. Spend 30 minutes at the bedside when providing direct care
- C. Change the linens every day after assisting with a bed bath
- D. Use gloves to remove the applicator if it is dislodged in the bed
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement when caring for a client with a radioactive Cesium-loaded vaginal applicator during brachytherapy is to wear a dosimeter film badge when in the client’s room. Wearing a dosimeter badge is essential to monitor radiation exposure and ensure the safety of healthcare providers. Choice B is incorrect as the duration is not specified and unnecessary. Choice C is incorrect as changing linens daily does not directly relate to radiation safety. Choice D is incorrect as using gloves to remove the applicator if dislodged is important but not the primary action to monitor radiation exposure.
3. A client who sustained a pellet gun injury with a resulting comminuted skull fracture is admitted overnight for observation. Which assessment finding obtained two hours after admission necessitates immediate intervention?
- A. The client complains of a throbbing headache rated 10 (on a scale of 1 to 10)
- B. The client repeatedly falls asleep while talking with the nurse
- C. The entry site has a slow trickle of bright red blood
- D. The entry site appears reddened and edematous
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client with a pellet gun injury and a comminuted skull fracture, repeatedly falling asleep while talking with the nurse is a concerning sign. It can indicate increased intracranial pressure or a deteriorating condition, requiring immediate intervention. The other options, such as a throbbing headache (choice A), slow trickle of bright red blood at the entry site (choice C), or reddened and edematous entry site (choice D), while important to monitor, do not directly indicate a need for immediate intervention as much as the client falling asleep repeatedly while talking does.
4. The healthcare provider is completing a head-to-toe assessment for a client admitted for observation after falling out of a tree. Which finding warrants immediate intervention by the healthcare provider?
- A. Sluggish pupillary response to light
- B. Clear fluid leaking from the nose
- C. Complaint of severe headache
- D. Periorbital ecchymosis of the right eye
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Clear fluid leaking from the nose is concerning for cerebrospinal fluid leakage, which is a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention. Sluggish pupillary response to light may indicate neurological issues but is not as urgent as CSF leakage. Complaint of severe headache is important but not as critical as the possibility of CSF leakage. Periorbital ecchymosis of the right eye could be indicative of trauma but does not pose an immediate threat to the patient's life.
5. A group of nurses implemented a pilot study to evaluate a proposed evidence-based change to providing client care. Evaluation indicates successful outcomes, and the nurses want to integrate the change throughout the facility. Which action should be taken? (Select all that apply)
- A. Invite data review by the quality improvement department
- B. Submit a sentinel event report to the research committee
- C. Propose clinical practice guidelines to the nursing committee
- D. Arrange in-service training through the educational department
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Inviting data review by the quality improvement department is crucial to ensure the quality and efficacy of the proposed evidence-based change. This step allows for a comprehensive analysis of the data collected during the pilot study. Proposing clinical practice guidelines to the nursing committee is also essential for integrating the successful change into routine practice. In-service training through the educational department will help educate staff and ensure they are proficient in implementing the new practices. Submitting a sentinel event report to the research committee is not necessary in this scenario as the outcomes were successful, and there were no adverse events that would warrant such a report. Choices B, C, and D are not as relevant in this context compared to inviting data review by the quality improvement department, which is a crucial step in ensuring the success of the proposed change.
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