Nursing Elites

1. A client with multiple sclerosis is receiving baclofen 15 mg PO three times daily. The drug is available in 10 mg tablets. How many tablets should the nurse administer in a 24-hour period? (Enter a numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest tenth)

• A. 4.5
• B.
• C.
• D.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the total dose of baclofen needed in a 24-hour period, multiply 15 mg by 3 doses, which equals 45 mg. Since the tablets are available in 10 mg strength, divide the total dose needed (45 mg) by the strength of each tablet (10 mg), which equals 4.5 tablets. Rounding off to the nearest tenth, the nurse should administer 4.5 tablets of 10 mg baclofen per day. Therefore, choice A is correct. Choices B, C, and D are irrelevant as they are not provided.

2. When should the nurse conduct an Allen’s test?

• A. When obtaining pulmonary artery pressures
• B. To assess for the presence of a deep vein thrombus in the leg
• C. Just before arterial blood gases are drawn peripherally
• D. Prior to attempting a cardiac output calculation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct time to conduct an Allen’s test is just before arterial blood gases are drawn peripherally. This test is performed to assess the adequacy of collateral circulation in the hand before obtaining arterial blood gases. Choice A is incorrect because an Allen’s test is not specifically done when obtaining pulmonary artery pressures. Choice B is incorrect because an Allen’s test is not used to assess deep vein thrombosis. Choice D is incorrect because an Allen’s test is not done specifically before attempting a cardiac output calculation.

3. When preparing to discharge a male client who has been hospitalized for an adrenal crisis, the client expresses concern about having another crisis. He tells the nurse that he wants to stay in the hospital a few more days. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer antianxiety medication before providing discharge instructions
• B. Schedule a follow-up appointment for an outpatient psychosocial assessment
• C. Obtain a blood cortisol level before discharge
• D. Encourage the client to remain in the hospital for a few more days

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention is to schedule a follow-up appointment for an outpatient psychosocial assessment. This option addresses the client's concerns and provides support for managing stress and preventing future crises, which is crucial for the client's long-term care. Administering antianxiety medication before providing discharge instructions (Choice A) may not effectively address the underlying concerns. Obtaining a blood cortisol level before discharge (Choice C) is important but not the priority in this situation. Encouraging the client to remain in the hospital for a few more days (Choice D) is not the best course of action as it may not address the client's anxiety and could potentially lead to other issues.

4. The nurse is teaching a class on child care to new parents. Which instruction should be included about the prevention of rotavirus infection in infants who are starting to eat foods?

• A. Keep house pets away from the food preparation area
• B. Avoid feeding infants fresh fruits
• C. Use only lactose-free formulas
• D. Wash hands before any food preparation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Wash hands before any food preparation. Rotavirus is a highly contagious virus that can be prevented by maintaining proper hygiene. Washing hands before handling food can help prevent the spread of infections, including rotavirus. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while they are good practices for general hygiene and infant care, they are not specifically targeted at preventing rotavirus infection.

5. A postoperative client returns to the nursing unit following a ureterolithotomy via a flank incision. Which potential nursing problem has the highest priority when planning nursing care for this client?

• A. Ineffective airway clearance
• B. Altered nutrition less than body requirements
• C. Fluid volume excess
• D. Activity intolerance

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the highest priority nursing problem for the postoperative client following a ureterolithotomy via a flank incision is ineffective airway clearance. After surgery, there is a risk of airway obstruction due to factors like anesthesia, positioning during surgery, or the presence of secretions. Maintaining a clear airway is crucial to prevent respiratory complications, such as atelectasis or pneumonia. Altered nutrition, fluid volume excess, and activity intolerance are important considerations but are secondary to the immediate threat of compromised airway clearance in the postoperative period.

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