Nursing Elites

1. A client with multiple sclerosis is receiving baclofen 15 mg PO three times daily. The drug is available in 10 mg tablets. How many tablets should the nurse administer in a 24-hour period? (Enter a numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest tenth)

• A. 4.5
• B.
• C.
• D.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the total dose of baclofen needed in a 24-hour period, multiply 15 mg by 3 doses, which equals 45 mg. Since the tablets are available in 10 mg strength, divide the total dose needed (45 mg) by the strength of each tablet (10 mg), which equals 4.5 tablets. Rounding off to the nearest tenth, the nurse should administer 4.5 tablets of 10 mg baclofen per day. Therefore, choice A is correct. Choices B, C, and D are irrelevant as they are not provided.

2. The practical nurse (PN) is assigned to work with three registered nurses (RN) who are caring for neurologically compromised clients. The client with which change in status is best to assign to the PN?

• A. Diabetic ketoacidosis whose Glasgow Coma Scale score changed from 10 to 7
• B. Subdural hematoma whose blood pressure changed from 150/80 mmHg to 170/60 mmHg
• C. Myxedema coma whose blood pressure changed from 80/50 mmHg to 70/40 mmHg
• D. Viral meningitis whose temperature changed from 101° F (38.3 C) to 102° F (38.9C)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because viral meningitis with a slight increase in temperature is less acute and complex compared to the other conditions. This change in temperature does not indicate a critical or urgent situation requiring immediate attention or intervention beyond the scope of a practical nurse. Choices A, B, and C present more significant changes in health status such as a decrease in Glasgow Coma Scale score, an increase in intracranial pressure indicated by blood pressure changes, and a significant drop in blood pressure, respectively. These changes require closer monitoring and intervention by registered nurses due to the higher acuity and complexity of care needed for these conditions.

3. Which client requires careful nursing assessment for signs and symptoms of hypomagnesemia?

• A. A young adult client with intractable vomiting from food poisoning
• B. A client who developed hyperparathyroidism in late adolescence
• C. A middle-aged male client in renal failure following an unsuccessful kidney transplant
• D. A female client who is overzealous with her intake of simple carbohydrates

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Vomiting can lead to significant loss of magnesium, causing hypomagnesemia. In this scenario, the young adult client with intractable vomiting from food poisoning is at higher risk of developing hypomagnesemia due to the loss of magnesium through vomiting. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to present with hypomagnesemia. Hyperparathyroidism (B) is associated with hypercalcemia, renal failure (C) can lead to hypermagnesemia, and overconsumption of simple carbohydrates (D) is not directly linked to magnesium imbalances.

4. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) and notes that the output flow is 100ml less than the input flow. Which actions should the nurse implement first?

• A. Continue to monitor intake and output with the next exchange
• B. Check the client's blood pressure and serum bicarbonate levels
• C. Irrigate the dialysis catheter
• D. Change the client's position

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this situation, the priority action for the nurse is to change the client's position. Altering the client's position can help facilitate better fluid drainage in peritoneal dialysis, potentially resolving the issue without the need for more invasive interventions. Continuing to monitor intake and output (Choice A) is important but addressing the immediate drainage issue takes precedence. Checking blood pressure and serum bicarbonate levels (Choice B) is not directly related to the observed output flow discrepancy. Irrigating the dialysis catheter (Choice C) should not be the initial action as it is more invasive and should be considered only if repositioning does not resolve the issue.

5. Which client’s vital signs indicate increased intracranial pressure (ICP) that the nurse should report to the healthcare provider?

• A. P 70, BP 120/60 mmHg; P 100, BP 90/60 mmHg; rapid respirations.
• B. P 55, BP 160/70 mmHg; P 50, BP 194/70 mmHg; irregular respirations.
• C. P 130, BP 190/90 mmHg; P 136, BP 200/100 mmHg; Kussmaul respirations.
• D. P 110, BP 130/70 mmHg; P 100, BP 110/70 mmHg; shallow respirations.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer. The vital signs presented (P 130, BP 190/90 mmHg; P 136, BP 200/100 mmHg; Kussmaul respirations) indicate increased intracranial pressure (ICP), which can be a serious condition requiring immediate medical attention. Kussmaul respirations are deep and labored breathing patterns associated with metabolic acidosis and can be a late sign of increased ICP. Choices A, B, and D do not demonstrate vital sign patterns consistent with increased ICP. Choice A shows variations in blood pressure and pulse rate but does not provide a clear indication of increased ICP. Choice B displays fluctuations in blood pressure and pulse rate with irregular respirations, but these vital signs do not specifically suggest increased ICP. Choice D presents relatively stable vital signs with shallow respirations, which do not align with the typical vital signs seen in increased ICP.

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