Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is evaluating a client for potential dehydration. Which assessment finding is most indicative of fluid volume deficit?

• A. Moist mucous membranes
• B. Increased urine output
• C. Decreased skin turgor
• D. Elevated blood pressure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Decreased skin turgor is a classic sign of dehydration. When someone is dehydrated, the skin loses its elasticity and becomes less turgid. This change is easily assessed by gently pinching and pulling up the skin on the back of the hand or forearm. If the skin remains elevated or tents rather than quickly returning to its normal position, it indicates dehydration. Moist mucous membranes (Choice A) are actually a sign of adequate hydration. Increased urine output (Choice B) can be a sign of dehydration, but decreased skin turgor is a more specific indicator. Elevated blood pressure (Choice D) is not typically associated with fluid volume deficit and may indicate other health issues.

2. The nurse is managing the care of a client with Cushing's syndrome. Which interventions should the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? (Select all that apply)

• A. Evaluate the client for sleep disturbances
• B. limit client exercise
• C. Report any client complaint of pain or discomfort
• D. Note and report the client's food and liquid intake during meals and snacks

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Weighing the client and monitoring food and liquid intake are appropriate tasks to delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) when managing a client with Cushing's syndrome. These tasks provide essential information for evaluating the client's condition and response to treatment. Evaluating for sleep disturbances and reporting client complaints of pain or discomfort require a higher level of assessment and interpretation, which should be performed by licensed healthcare providers. Therefore, options A and C are tasks that involve assessment and interpretation beyond the scope of practice for UAP.

3. A client is admitted with acute low back pain. What action should the nurse implement to promote comfort?

• A. Ambulate with a walker for upper body support
• B. Perform abdominal curls to stretch the back muscles
• C. Position in semi-Fowler's with the knees flexed
• D. Encourage straight leg raises while lying supine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Positioning the client in semi-Fowler's with the knees flexed is the most appropriate action to promote comfort in a client with acute low back pain. This position helps alleviate low back pain by reducing the pressure on the spine and supporting its natural curvature. Ambulating with a walker could strain the back, performing abdominal curls may exacerbate the pain, and straight leg raises while lying supine could cause further discomfort. Therefore, only positioning the client in semi-Fowler's with the knees flexed is the correct choice for promoting comfort in this scenario.

4. A woman with an anxiety disorder calls her obstetrician’s office and tells the nurse of increased anxiety since the normal vaginal delivery of her son three weeks ago. Since she is breastfeeding, she stopped taking her antianxiety medications, but thinks she may need to start taking them again because of her increased anxiety. What response is best for the nurse to provide this woman?

• A. Describe the safety of certain antianxiety medications during breastfeeding
• B. Encourage her to consider stress-relieving alternatives, such as deep breathing exercises
• C. Inform her that some antianxiety medications are safe to take while breastfeeding
• D. Explain that anxiety is a common response for the mother of a 3-week-old

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Some antianxiety medications are considered safe for use while breastfeeding, and the nurse should provide this information to alleviate the woman's concerns. Choice A has been corrected to focus on the safety of certain antianxiety medications during breastfeeding, which is more accurate. Choice B suggests stress-relieving alternatives, which may help but do not address the need for antianxiety medication if required. Choice D is incorrect because it minimizes the woman's concerns by dismissing her increased anxiety as a normal response.

5. A client who sustained a pellet gun injury with a resulting comminuted skull fracture is admitted overnight for observation. Which assessment finding obtained two hours after admission necessitates immediate intervention?

• A. The client complains of a throbbing headache rated 10 (on a scale of 1 to 10)
• B. The client repeatedly falls asleep while talking with the nurse
• C. The entry site has a slow trickle of bright red blood
• D. The entry site appears reddened and edematous

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with a pellet gun injury and a comminuted skull fracture, repeatedly falling asleep while talking with the nurse is a concerning sign. It can indicate increased intracranial pressure or a deteriorating condition, requiring immediate intervention. The other options, such as a throbbing headache (choice A), slow trickle of bright red blood at the entry site (choice C), or reddened and edematous entry site (choice D), while important to monitor, do not directly indicate a need for immediate intervention as much as the client falling asleep repeatedly while talking does.

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