the nurse is evaluating a client for potential dehydration which assessment finding is most indicative of fluid volume deficit
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

CAT Exam Practice Test

1. The healthcare provider is evaluating a client for potential dehydration. Which assessment finding is most indicative of fluid volume deficit?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Decreased skin turgor is a classic sign of dehydration. When someone is dehydrated, the skin loses its elasticity and becomes less turgid. This change is easily assessed by gently pinching and pulling up the skin on the back of the hand or forearm. If the skin remains elevated or tents rather than quickly returning to its normal position, it indicates dehydration. Moist mucous membranes (Choice A) are actually a sign of adequate hydration. Increased urine output (Choice B) can be a sign of dehydration, but decreased skin turgor is a more specific indicator. Elevated blood pressure (Choice D) is not typically associated with fluid volume deficit and may indicate other health issues.

2. The urinary drainage of a client with continuous bladder irrigation is becoming increasingly red. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Increasing the irrigation rate can help clear any blood clots and reduce the redness in the urinary drainage. This intervention aims to improve the flushing of the bladder and potentially resolve the issue. Lowering the head of the bed would not directly address the red urinary drainage. Milking the catheter tubing is not recommended as it can cause trauma to the catheter or bladder, leading to further complications. While evaluating for fluid overload is an important nursing consideration, it does not directly address the immediate concern of redness in the urinary drainage, which requires a focused intervention to clear any blockages or clots in the system.

3. While a patient is receiving beta-1b interferon every other day for multiple sclerosis, which serum laboratory test findings should the nurse monitor to assess for possible bone marrow suppression caused by the medication? (Select all that apply)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Beta-1b interferon can lead to bone marrow suppression, impacting blood cell production. Therefore, monitoring the platelet count, white blood cell count (WBC), and red blood cell count (RBC) is essential. Platelet count is a direct indicator of bone marrow function and can show early signs of bone marrow suppression. While sodium, potassium, and albumin/protein levels are important for overall health assessment, they are not directly associated with bone marrow suppression caused by the medication.

4. A client is admitted with the diagnosis of Wernicke’s syndrome. What assessment finding should the nurse use in planning the client’s care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Confusion is a key symptom of Wernicke’s syndrome, which is due to thiamine deficiency. Wernicke’s syndrome is characterized by a triad of symptoms known as the classic triad, which includes confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia. Right lower abdominal pain, depression, and peripheral neuropathy are not typically associated with Wernicke’s syndrome, making them incorrect choices for this question.

5. While changing a client’s chest tube dressing, the nurse notes a crackling sensation when gentle pressure is applied to the skin at the insertion site. What is the best action for the nurse to take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A crackling sensation indicates subcutaneous emphysema, caused by air trapped under the skin. Applying a pressure dressing around the chest tube insertion site can help manage the issue by preventing further air leakage into the tissues. Choice B is incorrect because the crackling sensation is not related to allergies. Choice C is incorrect as measuring the area does not address the underlying cause. Choice D is incorrect as administering an oral antihistamine is not indicated for subcutaneous emphysema.

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