HESI LPN
CAT Exam Practice Test
1. The healthcare provider is evaluating a client for potential dehydration. Which assessment finding is most indicative of fluid volume deficit?
- A. Moist mucous membranes
- B. Increased urine output
- C. Decreased skin turgor
- D. Elevated blood pressure
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Decreased skin turgor is a classic sign of dehydration. When someone is dehydrated, the skin loses its elasticity and becomes less turgid. This change is easily assessed by gently pinching and pulling up the skin on the back of the hand or forearm. If the skin remains elevated or tents rather than quickly returning to its normal position, it indicates dehydration. Moist mucous membranes (Choice A) are actually a sign of adequate hydration. Increased urine output (Choice B) can be a sign of dehydration, but decreased skin turgor is a more specific indicator. Elevated blood pressure (Choice D) is not typically associated with fluid volume deficit and may indicate other health issues.
2. The nurse is preparing to administer an IM dose of vitamin B1 (Thiamine) to a male client experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal and peripheral neuritis. The client belligerently states, “What do you think you’re doing?” How should the nurse respond?
- A. “I cannot give you this medication until you calm down.”
- B. “This shot will help relieve the pain in your feet.”
- C. “Would you prefer to learn to administer your own shot?”
- D. “You will feel calmer and less jittery after this shot.”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct response is to provide a relevant explanation to the client. Choice B, “This shot will help relieve the pain in your feet,” is the best answer because it directly addresses the client's concern about the purpose of the medication. By explaining the potential benefit of the injection, the nurse can alleviate the client's anxiety and increase their cooperation during the procedure. Choice A is incorrect as it dismisses the client's question and may escalate the situation. Choice C is not suitable as it deviates from addressing the client's immediate query. Choice D is incorrect because it fails to specifically address the client's concern regarding the medication's purpose.
3. A client with renal disease seems anxious and presents with the onset of shortness of breath, lethargy, edema, and weight gain. Which action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Determine serum potassium level
- B. Calculate the client’s daily fluid intake
- C. Assess client for signs of vertigo
- D. Review the client’s pulse oximetry reading
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to determine the client's serum potassium level. In a client with renal disease experiencing symptoms like shortness of breath, lethargy, edema, and weight gain, assessing serum potassium levels is crucial. Electrolyte imbalances, including potassium, can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Calculating daily fluid intake may be important but addressing acute symptoms related to electrolyte imbalances takes precedence. Assessing for signs of vertigo and reviewing pulse oximetry reading are not the priority in this scenario compared to assessing and managing potential electrolyte imbalances.
4. After administering a proton pump inhibitor (PPI), which action should the nurse take to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?
- A. Ask the client about gastrointestinal pain
- B. Measure the client’s fluid intake and output
- C. Monitor the client’s serum electrolyte levels
- D. Auscultate for bowel sounds in all quadrants
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ask the client about gastrointestinal pain. The effectiveness of a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) is best evaluated by assessing the relief of gastrointestinal symptoms, such as heartburn, acid reflux, or stomach pain. These medications work by reducing the production of stomach acid, so improvement in these symptoms indicates the effectiveness of the PPI. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly reflect the effectiveness of a PPI. Measuring fluid intake and output, monitoring serum electrolyte levels, and auscultating for bowel sounds are important for assessing hydration status, electrolyte balance, and gastrointestinal motility, respectively. However, they are not specific to evaluating PPI effectiveness.
5. A client diagnosed with a deep vein thrombus (DVT) followed by a diagnosis of pulmonary embolism (PE) is receiving heparin via an infusion pump at a rate of 1400 u/hour. The client tells the nurse, “I wish this medicine would hurry up and dissolve this clot in my lung so that I can go home”. What response is best for the nurse to provide?
- A. Heparin prevents further clot formation, but your risk of bleeding needs to be monitored closely
- B. You seem to be concerned about the length of time it takes for Heparin to dissolve this clot
- C. Let me contact your healthcare provider to discuss the possibility of receiving IV heparin therapy at home
- D. Why are you so anxious to leave the hospital when you know you are not well enough yet?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response is A: 'Heparin prevents further clot formation, but your risk of bleeding needs to be monitored closely.' Heparin is an anticoagulant that prevents further clot formation, but it does not quickly dissolve existing clots. It is crucial for the nurse to educate the client about the purpose of heparin and the necessity for close monitoring of bleeding risks. Choice B is incorrect as it does not address the misunderstanding about heparin's mechanism of action. Choice C is incorrect as home administration of IV heparin therapy requires careful consideration and should not be suggested without a thorough assessment. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the client's misconception about heparin's role in dissolving clots and instead focuses on the client's desire to leave the hospital.
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