HESI LPN
CAT Exam Practice Test
1. The healthcare provider is evaluating a client for potential dehydration. Which assessment finding is most indicative of fluid volume deficit?
- A. Moist mucous membranes
- B. Increased urine output
- C. Decreased skin turgor
- D. Elevated blood pressure
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Decreased skin turgor is a classic sign of dehydration. When someone is dehydrated, the skin loses its elasticity and becomes less turgid. This change is easily assessed by gently pinching and pulling up the skin on the back of the hand or forearm. If the skin remains elevated or tents rather than quickly returning to its normal position, it indicates dehydration. Moist mucous membranes (Choice A) are actually a sign of adequate hydration. Increased urine output (Choice B) can be a sign of dehydration, but decreased skin turgor is a more specific indicator. Elevated blood pressure (Choice D) is not typically associated with fluid volume deficit and may indicate other health issues.
2. A nurse is reviewing the immunization schedule of an 11-month-old infant. What immunizations does the nurse expect the infant to have previously received?
- A. Pertussis, tetanus, polio, and measles
- B. Diphtheria, pertussis, tetanus, and polio
- C. Rubella, polio, tuberculosis, and pertussis
- D. Measles, mumps, rubella, and tuberculosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: By 11 months of age, the recommended vaccines for infants include diphtheria, pertussis, tetanus, and polio. These vaccines are part of the routine immunization schedule to protect infants from serious infectious diseases. Choice A is incorrect because measles is not typically administered at this age. Choice C is incorrect because rubella and tuberculosis are not part of routine infant immunizations. Choice D is incorrect because measles, mumps, and rubella are usually given as a combination vaccine later in childhood, not at 11 months of age.
3. What is the most important assessment for the LPN/LVN to perform on a client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) receiving oxygen therapy at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula?
- A. Assess the client's respiratory rate and effort.
- B. Measure the client's oxygen saturation level.
- C. Monitor the client's arterial blood gas levels.
- D. Check the client's blood pressure.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Measuring the client's oxygen saturation level is the most important assessment in this scenario. Oxygen saturation level reflects how well the client is oxygenating, which is crucial in assessing the effectiveness of oxygen therapy for a client with COPD. Monitoring the respiratory rate and effort (Choice A) is important but assessing oxygenation with saturation levels takes precedence. While arterial blood gas levels (Choice C) provide comprehensive information, checking oxygen saturation is a quicker and more immediate way to assess oxygenation status. Checking blood pressure (Choice D) is not the priority when evaluating the effectiveness of oxygen therapy in COPD.
4. Females with Turner syndrome:
- A. possess more thymine than cytosine.
- B. are taller than average.
- C. produce little estrogen.
- D. are more likely to give birth to twins.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Turner syndrome is a chromosomal disorder in females characterized by short stature and underdeveloped ovaries, resulting in low estrogen production. This leads to symptoms such as delayed puberty and infertility. Choice A is incorrect because the chromosomal abnormality in Turner syndrome does not affect the thymine-cytosine ratio. Choice B is incorrect as females with Turner syndrome are typically shorter than average. Choice D is incorrect as Turner syndrome does not increase the likelihood of giving birth to twins.
5. A parent asks a nurse about his infant's expected physical development during the first year of life. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
- A. A 10-month-old infant can pull up to a standing position.
- B. A 6-month-old infant can walk with assistance.
- C. A 12-month-old infant can jump with both feet.
- D. An 8-month-old infant can crawl on hands and knees.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. By 10 months, infants can typically pull up to a standing position as part of their physical development. Walking with assistance usually begins around 9-12 months, not at 6 months (choice B). Jumping with both feet is a skill that usually develops around 24 months, not at 12 months (choice C). Crawling on hands and knees typically starts around 6-9 months, not at 8 months (choice D). Therefore, the most accurate information to include for an infant's expected physical development at 10 months is the ability to pull up to a standing position.