Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is caring for a patient with a spinal cord injury and notices that the patient's hips have a tendency to rotate externally when the patient is supine. Which device will the healthcare provider use to help prevent injury secondary to this rotation?

• A. Hand rolls
• B. A trapeze bar
• C. A trochanter roll
• D. Hand-wrist splints

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A trochanter roll is the correct choice as it is used to prevent external rotation of the hips when the patient is in a supine position. Hand rolls (Choice A) are incorrect because they are used to prevent contractures of the fingers, wrist, and hand. A trapeze bar (Choice B) is not the correct option as it helps patients change positions in bed and aids with movement, not specifically for hip rotation. Hand-wrist splints (Choice D) are also incorrect as they are used to maintain the functional position of the wrist and hand, not to address hip rotation.

2. The nurse assesses a client who has a nasal cannula delivering oxygen at 2 L/min. To assess for skin damage related to the cannula, which areas should the nurse observe?

• A. Tops of the ears
• B. Bridge of the nose
• C. Around the nostrils
• D. Over the cheeks

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is using a nasal cannula for oxygen therapy, the areas prone to skin damage are the tops of the ears and around the nostrils. The pressure exerted by the cannula on these areas can lead to skin breakdown, so it is important for the nurse to observe these sites for any signs of damage. The correct answer is 'Tops of the ears.' Choices 'Bridge of the nose' and 'Over the cheeks' are not typically areas where skin damage related to the cannula would occur, making them incorrect choices.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with diabetes insipidus. Which finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Increased urine output
• C. Low blood pressure
• D. Thirst

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased urine output. In diabetes insipidus, there is a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to the excretion of large amounts of dilute urine. Reporting increased urine output is crucial as it is a hallmark sign of diabetes insipidus. Weight gain (choice A) is not typically associated with diabetes insipidus; instead, clients may experience weight loss due to fluid loss. Low blood pressure (choice C) can be a complication of diabetes insipidus due to dehydration from excessive urination, but the priority finding to report is the increased urine output. Thirst (choice D) is a common symptom of diabetes insipidus due to the body's attempt to compensate for fluid loss, but it is not the most critical finding to report.

4. A nurse observes an assistive personnel (AP) preparing to obtain blood pressure with a regular size cuff for a client who is obese. Which of the following explanations should the nurse give the AP?

• A. Using a cuff that is too small will result in an inaccurately high reading.
• B. Using a cuff that is too large will result in an inaccurately low reading.
• C. The regular size cuff is appropriate for all clients.
• D. You should use a cuff of any size as long as it fits.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Using a cuff that is too small will result in an inaccurately high reading.' When obtaining blood pressure for an obese client, it is crucial to use a larger cuff to ensure an accurate reading. Choice B is incorrect because using a cuff that is too large for an obese client would actually result in an inaccurately low reading. Choice C is incorrect as a regular size cuff is not appropriate for obese clients due to their larger arm circumference. Choice D is incorrect because using a cuff of any size as long as it fits is not suitable for obtaining accurate blood pressure readings on an obese client.

5. A male client being discharged with a prescription for the bronchodilator theophylline tells the nurse that he understands he is to take three doses of the medication each day. Since timed-release capsules are not available at the time of discharge, which dosing schedule should the LPN advise the client to follow?

• A. 9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m.
• B. 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight.
• C. Before breakfast, before lunch, and before dinner.
• D. With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct dosing schedule for the client to follow is to take the medication at 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight. This timing spaces the doses evenly over the waking hours, ensuring consistent therapeutic levels of the medication. Choice A (9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m.) does not evenly distribute the doses throughout the day. Choices C (Before breakfast, before lunch, and before dinner) and D (With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner) do not provide the required frequency of dosing needed for optimal therapeutic effect.

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