HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals 2023 Test Bank
1. The healthcare provider is caring for a patient with a spinal cord injury and notices that the patient's hips have a tendency to rotate externally when the patient is supine. Which device will the healthcare provider use to help prevent injury secondary to this rotation?
- A. Hand rolls
- B. A trapeze bar
- C. A trochanter roll
- D. Hand-wrist splints
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A trochanter roll is the correct choice as it is used to prevent external rotation of the hips when the patient is in a supine position. Hand rolls (Choice A) are incorrect because they are used to prevent contractures of the fingers, wrist, and hand. A trapeze bar (Choice B) is not the correct option as it helps patients change positions in bed and aids with movement, not specifically for hip rotation. Hand-wrist splints (Choice D) are also incorrect as they are used to maintain the functional position of the wrist and hand, not to address hip rotation.
2. A client with a recent total knee replacement is scheduled for physical therapy. The client refuses to participate, stating that the pain is too intense. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Administer the prescribed analgesic and encourage participation after it takes effect.
- B. Reschedule the physical therapy session for later in the day.
- C. Explain the importance of physical therapy for recovery.
- D. Notify the physical therapist of the client's refusal.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering pain medication before physical therapy helps manage the pain, making it easier for the client to participate in the necessary exercises to improve recovery and prevent complications such as joint stiffness. Choice B is not the first step as addressing the pain should take precedence. Choice C is important but should come after managing the pain to facilitate participation. Choice D involves another healthcare provider and is not the immediate action needed in this situation.
3. A client with chronic heart failure is prescribed furosemide. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Increased blood glucose levels
- B. Electrolyte imbalance
- C. Dehydration
- D. Weight gain
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a client with chronic heart failure is prescribed furosemide, a diuretic, the nurse should be vigilant for potential adverse effects. Furosemide can lead to excessive fluid loss, resulting in dehydration. Dehydration is a significant concern as it can exacerbate heart failure symptoms. Additionally, furosemide can cause electrolyte imbalances, particularly affecting potassium and sodium levels. Monitoring for signs of dehydration and electrolyte disturbances is crucial to prevent complications and ensure the client's safety and well-being. Increased blood glucose levels and weight gain are not commonly associated with furosemide use in heart failure patients, making choices A and D incorrect.
4. What is the main purpose of Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs)?
- A. To provide guidelines for nutrient intakes that meet the needs of most healthy people.
- B. To specify the minimum amount of nutrients required for survival.
- C. To establish maximum safe levels of nutrient intakes.
- D. To recommend specific nutrient intake levels to prevent chronic diseases.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The main purpose of Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs) is to provide guidelines for nutrient intakes that meet the needs of most healthy people. Choice B is incorrect because RDAs aim beyond just survival requirements. Choice C is incorrect because establishing maximum safe levels is the role of Tolerable Upper Intake Levels (ULs). Choice D is incorrect because preventing chronic diseases is more associated with Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs) like Adequate Intakes (AIs) and Tolerable Upper Intake Levels (ULs). Therefore, the correct answer is A.
5. A nurse in a clinic is reviewing laboratory reports for a group of clients. Which of the following diseases should the nurse report to the state health department?
- A. Pertussis
- B. Group B streptococcal disease
- C. Respiratory syncytial virus
- D. Rotavirus
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Pertussis is the correct answer because it is a reportable disease that healthcare providers are required by law to report to public health authorities. This infectious disease poses a significant public health risk and needs to be monitored closely to prevent outbreaks and implement control measures. Group B streptococcal disease, Respiratory syncytial virus, and Rotavirus are important conditions but are not typically reportable to the state health department. These diseases may require specific precautions in healthcare settings, but they do not fall under mandatory reporting requirements.