Nursing Elites

1. At the surgical scrub sink, a surgical nurse demonstrated the proper surgical handwashing technique by scrubbing:

• A. With her hands held lower than her elbows
• B. With her hands held higher than her elbows
• C. With her hands in a fist position
• D. With hands placed on her chest

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct technique for surgical handwashing involves scrubbing with hands held higher than the elbows. This positioning helps prevent water from the contaminated area (the hands) from flowing towards the cleaner area (the elbows). This directional flow minimizes the risk of contaminating the scrubbed hands during the handwashing process. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect: A - having hands lower than elbows would risk contamination of the clean area, C - using a fist position does not ensure proper coverage and thorough handwashing, and D - placing hands on the chest is not part of the proper surgical handwashing technique.

2. A client with diabetes mellitus is admitted with a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dL. What is the priority nursing action for the LPN/LVN?

• A. Administer insulin as prescribed.
• B. Administer oral hypoglycemic agents.
• C. Monitor blood glucose levels frequently.
• D. Provide a high-calorie diet.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer insulin as prescribed. When a client with diabetes mellitus presents with a critically high blood glucose level like 600 mg/dL, the priority action is to lower the blood glucose level promptly to prevent complications. Insulin is the appropriate medication to rapidly reduce high blood glucose levels. Administering oral hypoglycemic agents may not act quickly enough in this critical situation. While monitoring blood glucose levels frequently is important, immediate intervention to lower the high blood glucose level takes precedence. Providing a high-calorie diet is contraindicated in this scenario as it would further elevate the blood glucose level.

3. A post-op nurse has an indwelling catheter in place for gravity drainage. The nurse notes that the client's urine bag has been empty for 2 hours. The first action the nurse should take is to:

• A. Check to see if the tubing is kinked.
• B. Increase the IV fluid rate.
• C. Check the catheter insertion site.
• D. Contact the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when the urine bag has not filled for 2 hours is to check if the tubing is kinked. Kinks in the tubing can obstruct the flow of urine from the catheter, leading to decreased drainage. Increasing the IV fluid rate is not the appropriate initial action in this situation as the primary concern is with the catheter drainage. Checking the catheter insertion site would be secondary to ensuring proper drainage. Contacting the healthcare provider is not necessary as the issue can often be resolved by checking for simple tubing obstructions first.

4. A client is being taught how to use an incentive spirometer. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will try to seal my lips around the mouthpiece
• B. I will use the spirometer as needed throughout the day
• C. I will inhale slowly and deeply when using the spirometer
• D. I will seal my lips around the mouthpiece

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Sealing the lips around the mouthpiece is crucial for the proper use of an incentive spirometer as it helps ensure effective delivery of the inhaled medication. Choice A has been corrected to reflect the importance of sealing the lips. Choices B and C are incorrect because using the spirometer as needed throughout the day and inhaling slowly and deeply, although beneficial, do not directly address the essential technique of sealing the lips around the mouthpiece.

5. When should discharge planning for a client experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure be initiated?

• A. During the admission process
• B. After the client is stabilized
• C. When the client expresses readiness to go home
• D. Just before the expected discharge date

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Discharge planning for a client with an exacerbation of heart failure should begin during the admission process. Initiating discharge planning early ensures a smooth transition and continuity of care for the client. Option B, after the client is stabilized, is not ideal because planning should start early to address potential barriers to discharge. Option C, when the client expresses readiness to go home, may be too late as discharge planning is a proactive process. Option D, just before the expected discharge date, does not allow enough time for comprehensive planning and coordination of post-discharge care needs.

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